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I think that in that instance the Children of Ilúvatar refers only to Men. Do most or all the members think that it refers to Men too?
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In this instance, it seems to refer only to Men. But, since Tolkien never revised it, even through the final edition, I would personally be kind of leery of changing it to just something like "Children of Men". However, this may just be my random bursts from not doing my homework. I'm going to go home and read BoLT and QS77.
I have a feeling that this debate is going to continue for a veeeerrrry long time, just like every other discussion on this site.