“Thee” and “thou” in “The Lord of the Rings”

[Estelyn Telcontar]

“Thee” and “thou” are virtually obsolete in modern English, and have been for well over a century at least. Therefore Tolkien’s use of this second person pronoun in several passages of his story is anachronistic and commanded my attention while reading. I asked myself: Why did he choose it, who said it, and what significance does it have?

On this international forum, a word of explanation may be needed. Native speakers of English and some other languages have only one second person pronoun to use when addressing others: in English, “you”. Other languages, such as German and French, have two different pronouns, one for formal usage, the other for informal, familiar usage. The formal pronoun is used for strangers, elders, and persons of respect. The familiar pronoun is used for family, equals, children, and as a sign of disrespect.

If we encounter “thee”, “thou”, “thy”, “thine” etc. in English, it is only in old literature – spoken usage is, for all practical purposes, extinct. Most likely we hear it in Shakespeare’s plays or when the King James Bible is read. That’s why its connotation has changed – originally, “you” was the formal personal pronoun, and “thee” was familiar. To us nowadays, “thee” sounds antiquated and therefore formal, so it no longer carries the meaning it once had, of a close relationship between speaker and listener.

Three passages, all of them in RotK, have a particularly significant use of the pronoun. (There are a few other examples which we can discuss later on, if enough are interested.) The first one is found in “The Passing of the Grey Company”, in two conversations that take place between Éowyn and Aragorn before he takes the Paths of the Dead. At first, she uses the normal “you” as they speak of more general issues and of herself. But then, when she begs him not to go, she uses “thee”:

‘Neither have those others who go with thee. They go only because they would not be parted from thee – because they love thee.’

And on the next morning:

‘Aragorn, wilt thou go? ... Then wilt thou not let me ride with this company, as I have asked? ... I beg thee!’

Aragorn, however, does not use the familiar pronoun, but answers with “you”.

I get the feeling that Éowyn is so overcome by her love and concern for Aragorn that she perhaps inadvertantly uses the familiar pronoun. Her speech betrays the secret of her heart – unintentionally or in the only way she can find to let him know how she feels. This is the “Du”* of a lover, attempting to bridge the distance between herself and the one she loves.

How do you feel when you read this passage? Did you notice Éowyn’s choice of words, and what did you think about it? If you are not a native English speaker, does your translation of the book make this distinction? If so, how does it affect your perception of the passage?


(The other two passages will follow within the next day or two.)


*German familiar personal pronoun

[Selmo]

Originally Posted by Estelyn Telcontar

I get the feeling that Éowyn is so overcome by her love and concern for Aragorn that she perhaps inadvertantly uses the familiar pronoun. Her speech betrays the secret of her heart – unintentionally or in the only way she can find to let him know how she feels.

Estelyn, I think you're right about Eowyn's use of the familiar pronoun.

However, you're wrong about the demise of such things in the English language.
I live just a little to the north of Birmingham, where Tolkien grew up, and my local dialect is similar to the language of that area. In conversation between family and friends we still use familiar pronouns, though when I speak, "thee" sounds more like "thay" and "thine" comes out as "tharn".

The old forms are alive and well in the UK's regional dialects.
.

[Galin]

Originally Posted by Selmo

I live just a little to the north of Birmingham, where Tolkien grew up, and my local dialect is similar to the language of that area. In conversation between family and friends we still use familiar pronouns, though when I speak, "thee" sounds more like "thay" and "thine" comes out as "tharn".

That's interesting!

And I don't remember my German well enough at the moment: is it Sie (polite) along with Du familiar?

[Inziladun]

Originally Posted by Galin

And I don't remember my German well enough at the moment: is it Sie (polite) along with Du familiar?

With all the authority of my two years of high school German, I think that's correct.

[Estelyn Telcontar]

Inzil, you've already pointed to the two other examples of the word usage that I would like to expand on! Good job on remembering them. Since the familiar form is used with a different purpose there, perhaps we should carry on with the discussion about Éowyn before talking about them.

Originally Posted by Galin

And I don't remember my German well enough at the moment: is it Sie (polite) along with Du familiar?

Yes - with all the authority of one who lives in Germany and has to cope with the correct usage of both forms on a daily basis!

[Galadriel55]

I'm no expert on this, but could there be a difference between "thee" and "thou"? Denethor, Eowyn, and Aragorn use "thee", and MOS says "thou". Perhaps "thou" has a different shade to it.

And I think Denethor is addressing Gandalf on familiar terms to do quite the opposite - show Galdalf that he doesn't have authority over the Stewart and can't boss him around. Or, that thy re more equal than (Denethor thinks) Gandalf thinks.

[Galadriel]

I do believe that our dear professor wanted his books to have an ancient feel (or sound!) to them. Personally, I would have liked his works less if he had not done it that way.

[Estelyn Telcontar]

Thanks for the additional information, Selmo! I'd read that but never experienced it, which accounts for not really believing it, I guess.

Galadriel, I understand what you're saying, but my point was that the archaic form is not something that is used throughout the book, but just in such isolated cases that it makes me look twice.

[Estelyn Telcontar]

I just looked at what Hammond and Scull have to say about this passage in their LotR Reader's Companion:

Originally Posted by Hammond and Scull

Éowyn began this conversation with Aragorn using formal you, your, but here pointedly changes to the intimate thee, expressing her feelings. When their conversation resumes the next day, she continues to use thee, thou, but Aragorn consistently addresses her with you, your, painfully polite.

I hadn't read that before posting my thoughts, so I'm delighted to hear that the experts agree with me!

[Galadriel55]

Nice find, Esty! Fut the "thee" that always brought my attention was this one:

Then Eowyn looked in the eyes of Aragorn, and she said: "Wish me joy, my liege-lord and healer!"
And he answered: "I have wished thee joy ever since first I saw thee. It heals my heart to see thee now in bliss."

Quite the reverse here! Eowyn is being formal, and Aragorn is showing that they are closer than she thinks.

[Estelyn Telcontar]

Ah, very nice find, Gal55! I hadn't realized that this passage rounds off the ones I quoted! I like that very much!

The Reader's Companion points to Kocher's Master of Middle-earth, Chapter "Aragorn":

It is symptomatic of his [Aragorn's] ease that he now dares use to her the familiar 'thee' with which she addressed him in her wooing but which he avoided in addressing her. Never has Tolkien looked into the human heart to better purpose than in this inset tale of Éowyn and Aragorn.

Now that Aragorn is (safely! ) married to Arwen, and no longer fears waking false hopes in Éowyn, (who is also now 'safely' in other hands) he comes full circle and shows that he cares deeply for her, though not as she formerly wished him to love her.

I do like this story of unrequited love.