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#1 |
Animated Skeleton
Join Date: Mar 2004
Posts: 35
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The Summons
In FoTR, Ch.2, Gandalf relates to Frodo his search for Gollum. He mentions that Gollum, in his wanderings, had suddenly headed south to Mordor, and he was in fact answering a silent summons issued by Sauron, that called those who were or had been under the power of the ring. So, why wasn't Bilbo compelled to answer this summons? Gollum had not possessed The Ring for several years, and Gandalf mentions that he did not use it much during his time under the Misty Mountains. Bilbo had had the ring for many years, and we know he occasionally used it. Was it just that hobbits were made of tougher stuff? But Gandalf states that Gollum's origins and the hobbit's origins were similar. It would have been much handier for Sauron had Bilbo arrived at the gates of Mordor complete with ring.
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The original and best Mel B |
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#2 |
Odinic Wanderer
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Well, actually Gollum kept the ring in his possession for around 500 years. . . Frodo was not cured by the effects the ring had on him on a few years, so you can hardly expect it to happen to Gollum.
The difference between Bilbo and Gollum is that Gollum is so corrupted by the ring, that it pretty much controls his every move. (At least the motivation for all his actions is to re-gain the ring). He no longer has any willpower to withstand the ring and its real master. Master is not the right word. . . Sauron was the Ring! Therefore when Gollum was consumed by the ring, he was consumed by Sauron and had to obey. Bilbo didn't have the ring for that long time, although it was beginning to have a certain power over him, it was not devastating like in Gollums case. and yes Gollum and Bilbo did have more or less the same origins. Last edited by Rune Son of Bjarne; 08-01-2006 at 07:03 AM. |
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#3 | |||
Shade of Carn Dûm
Join Date: Apr 2004
Location: Washington, D. C., USA
Posts: 299
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I'm not so certain that Bilbo did not feel the need to respond to the summons. From The Fellowship of the Ring A Long Expected Party:
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Later in the book, in the chapter Many Meetings, Bilbo says: Quote:
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But all the while I sit and think of times there were before, I listen for returning feet and voices at the door. |
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#4 |
Odinic Wanderer
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I don't think that the Ring had a great enough power over Bilbo to make him respond to the summons. . .at least not in a way that would make him journey to Mordor!
I think that you a quite right Radagastly, when you say that the restlessness of Bilbo is caused by the ring. I do however believe that he was still to much in control of him self, to wander of from Rivendell all the way to Mordor. |
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#5 | ||||||||
Laconic Loreman
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This one could go either way, I think. Radagastly brings up some good points and good quotes. And to further the argument, it could even explain why Bilbo felt a need to step out and bear the Ring to Mount Doom, as he offers in The Council of Elrond:
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1) The circumstances one acquires it: Did one get the Ring after committing a crime/horrible act (Gollum) or was it out of a good purpose, as Bilbo does. Quote:
Let's take Boromir and Denethor for instance. Both were doomed from the beginning when it came to the Ring (if they should ever come across it). Boromir was full of pride, love for his country, and seeking his own glory, so before he even came across the Ring, he was doomed to fall to the Ring. This is the same case with Denethor, who never even comes close to the Ring yet he still had a desire to possess it, and saw the Ring as a 'mighty gift': Quote:
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3) The Knowledge of the Ring: Bilbo didn't know much about the Ring as we are told: Quote:
4) Not to use a soccer term...well actually yes...but Time of Possession: No matter what, eventually if you had the Ring long enough it would take control over you: Quote:
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So, I think it is rather a complicated question. Clearly the Ring was still at an early stage of influence over Bilbo, it was just starting to get a hold over him. Now is 'the summons' something that is only after long years and nearly full 'pull' towards the Ring, as we see with Gollum...who was nearly and fully in the Ring's power. Or is it something that happens rather early...perhaps it's just a feeling a desire one gets AFTER giving up the Ring? Because, as radagastly points out Bilbo did have this 'restlessness,' and are you one to interpret Bilbo's offer to destroy the ring as a noble and heart-filled offer...or was he feeling the 'summons' of the Ring? Or both? One thing I'm fairly sure Rune is that 'the summons' would have to be the desire or pull towards Mordor, a drawing towards Sauron. It just doesn't make sense there would only be a 'partial summons' because what purpose would that serve? I mean to have a 'summon' that drags a past ringbearer to Rivendell...of all places...I just don't see a purpose in that situation. I would think that the summons has the specific intent on dragging the past (or maybe even present) ringbearer to Sauron, and no where else, because pulling the person to another place would really serve no purpose.
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