Why are the Vanyar higher than the Noldor?

[The Saucepan Man]

In regards to Morgoth's 'might' and when the Valar would choose to attack. It is I think specious to say that they had to wait. Why? they did not have to wait in the war of the powers?

My earlier post was based on the idea that Melkor was less powerful after 500 years of fighting the Noldor and breeding orcs, dragons and the like than he was when he first departed Valinor with the Simarils. I seem to recall having seen some justification for this idea in the Silmarillion, although I cannot now recall where.

And, based on that assumption, the point that I was making was that the defeat of Melkor was achieved with far more certainty and considerably less loss (in terms of lives and damage to Arda) in consequence of the Noldor's rebellion and flight to Beleriand. And if that is correct, then the Noldor achieved far more than zero.

And, if my assumption concerning Melkor being weakened is not correct then, as lord of dor-lomin asks, why did they not take action against Melkor immediately? Or seeing the suffering that he was bringing to those who had not "sinned" by participating in the kin-slaying at Alqualonde (the Sindar and Laiquendi and, of course, Men) and those who had participated because they believed that they were under attack (the host of Fingolfin), why did they not then intervene?

So, to my mind, either the Noldor achieved much in weakening Melkor for the final assault by the host of Valinor, or the Valar seem a pretty uncaring bunch. [img]smilies/eek.gif[/img]