The Translator Conceit

[littlemanpoet]

Oh heck, I might as well start this one too.....

In at least one other thread it has been discussed how Tolkien employed a "conceit" of himself as translator of a very old work. Davem has summarized this well:

Originally Posted by davem

Tolkien has set up in the foreword the conceit of LotR being a translation of the Red Book. It is a work with two main narrators - Frodo & Sam, but we are also told that the accounts have been 'supplemented by the learning of the wise'. We are also informed that the book from which Tolkien 'translated' the story was not the original book but a copy. He even includes an aside by Findegil the King's copyist. What we seem to have then, is a version of the original work, which has been 'supplemented' through various copies & finally translated by an Oxford Don in the 1940's.

The purpose of this thread is to discuss how this conceit works in various parts of LotR.

One example might be the variations in style in LotR. Whereas the style of language used in FotR is often "business-like" Hobbitish talk, in RotK the dialogue is quite "high flown". Could this be due to Tolkien having translated from Sam's Red Book of Westmarch for the Shire while having translated from, say, Findegil's words from Minas Tirith for the Battle of the Pelennor fields?

Are there other examples you've run across that could be discussed?