LotR1-FotR-Seq06

[Essex]

Originally Posted by alatar

But the question remains: why did PJ choose to show the Uruks as being born from some mud pit, whereas in the books it's much different.

I think it's the case that Tolkien does not show HOW they are 'born'. So it is not 'different' - just showing something that Tolkien glosses over?

or does he mention somewhere that I've forgotten?

All I can find is: (from The Silmarillion, Of the Coming of the Elves)

Yet this is held true by the wise of Eressea, that all those of the Quendi who came into the hands of Melkor, ere Utumno was broken, were put there in prison, and by slow arts of cruelty were corrupted and enslaved; and thus did Melkor breed the hideous race of the Orcs in envy and mokery of the Elves, of whom they were afterwards the bitterest foes

and Treebeard

"For these Isengarders are more like wicked Men. It is a mark of evil things that came in the Great Darkness that they cannot abide the Sun; but Saruman's Orcs can endure it, even if they hate it. I wonder what he has done? Are they Men he has ruined, or has he blended the races of Orcs and Men? That would be a black evil!"

and Hamling

'But these creatures of Isengard, these half-orcs and goblin-men that the foul craft of Saruman has bred, they will not quail at the sun'

now where Tolkien show how they are 'created' - he mentions words like Multiply and Spawn in the Fellowship - but (to me at least) he does not state how they are born, other than they came from Elves as my first quote above.