Did Gandalf make a mistake at Isengard ?

[Formendacil]

Originally Posted by Ibrîniðilpathânezel

Inziladun makes a good point, that Gandalf was not aware of Saruman's possession of a palantir until after it had been flung at him (contrary to what was shown in Jackson's version of the story).

Although the basic point here that Inziladun and Ibrin are making is to the effect that the palantír did not play a deliberative role in Gandalf's actions, I think it's incorrect to say that he did not know a palantír was in Saruman's possession.

The Orthanc-stone, after all, had always been at Isengard. Unlike the stones of Arnor, it was never moved due to enemy advances, and unlike Osgiliath and Minas Ithil, Orthanc was never taken by an enemy army--though, if my memory serves (and it IS hazy), the garrison did become strongly Dunlendish at some point, and resist Rohirric influence.

However, assuming that my memory IS right, then it also says that this was a huge part of the deliberative reasoning in Saruman receiving guardianship of Orthanc from the Stewards--Gondor wanted to know the palantír was safe in the hands of a wizard.

Granted, I doubt that the palantír was present much in Gandalf's thoughts--insofar as he knew, they weren't being used. It is hugely clear that the revelation of Gríma chucking the stone at him was of something he'd not known before... BUT... in the interests of pedantry, it seems fair to suggest Gandalf should have known it was there, even if he hadn't made the connection.