[J.R.R. Tolkien] Why Lord of the Rings?

[Tar-Palantir]

That logic might hold true if the Ring was just a magic tool Sauron had crafted.

First of all, I don't need logic to interpret things my own way (sad but true [img]smilies/wink.gif[/img]), which is what I said was the case in my post above.

In (this fictional) reality, though, that's not it. The Ring IS Sauron; Sauron IS the Ring. If the One Ring is the boss, then Sauron too is the boss.

The title is Lord of the Rings - any being possessing adequate strength (Gandalf, Saruman the White - and possibly Aragorn, Galadriel, Elrond and maybe even Círdan) of will to wield the One Ring would be able to access the remaining Rings - corruption aside - would BE the Lord of the Rings. If Sauron possessed the Ring he would BE the Lord of the Rings. If nobody possesses the Ring there is no Lord of the Rings - I don't care who forged it or what evil power and taint drives it. In my mind the One Ring is the lord of the other Rings regardless of it's present master or lack thereof.

Logic others might find full of holes no doubt, but I enjoy the imagery of it; it works for me.