Reclaiming a Throne

[Saurreg]

Gil-galad's/Elrond's Lineage

Has Christopher Tolkien stated that was a mistake during the compilation of the Silmarillion in regards to the lineage of Gil-galad and that the right family line was published in HoME?

Silmarillion Family Line:

Finwë-> Fingolfin -> Fingon -> Gil-galad

HoME Family Line (From Wikipedia?):

Finwë -> Finärfin -> Angrod -> Orodreth -> Gil-galad

That would mean that the last High-King of Middle Earth was descended from House Finarfin and not House Fingolfin, no? If that is the case, does that mean that kingship is interchangeable between the three princely houses of the Noldor? Proponents of the above idea may argue that after the exodus of House Fëanor and House Fingolfin from Aman, Finärfin assumed kingship of what was left of the Noldor in Aman. If kingship inheritance was strictly confined within each ruling house, then Finärfin could not have been king - steward or regent perhaps but not High King.

The disinheritance of House Fëanor is debatable and can be used as leverage for both opponents and proponents of the idea of interchangeability. Maedhros, rightful High King after Fëanor willingly surrendered kingship to Fingolfin and thus the second princely house of the Noldor inherited the crown. The question is, did Maedhros relinquish his office because it was Noldorim law that the crown must be held by the next eldest Prince after Fëanor (regardless of house) which, was Fingolfin or did Maedhros exercise some extraordinary kingly powers and thus disinherited his own house?

The above is worth debating because of Elrond's lineage;

Finwë -> Fingolfin -> Turgon -> Idril -> Eärendil (Half-elven) -> Elrond (Half-elven)

If we assume that Gil-galad's lineage from HoME was correct and that the Silmarillion was wrong and that the kingship can only be passed within the same House, then it would explain why Turgon became High-King after Fingon (Fingon would have no known descendant in HoME) and hence Turgon being the next eldest in the House of Fingolfin would assume the throne.

The question of whether Elves had a Salic Law (no females may assume kingship)or not is a good one. After Turgon dies, Idril would have assumed the high office if there was no Salic Law. But strangely enough, Gil-galad became the next and last High King. That indicates that unless Idril exercised the same power that Maedhros did and disinherited kingship from House Turgon, some sort of Salic Law was in play here and because there was no direct male descendant in House Turgon anymore, the crown must pass to the next House - that of House Finärfin in Middle Earth. Angrod and Orodreth perished before Turgon but Galadriel was still alive and unless she forfited her claim or was prevented to claim the crown by some law, she would have became the next soveriegn of the Noldor because she out-ranked Gil-galad in terms of lineage.

Eärendil is abit of dilemma for proponents of the everything-goes-within-the-same-house faction. But there is now a very strong case of elven Salic law at play here and it disinherited Idril and hence her entire line afterwards (Tuor can be prince regent but not King because he was not of Turgon's blood). Opponents of the above school of thought would either argue that Idril volunteeringly surrendered her claim and hence disinherited Eärendil and Elrond or that because both were only half-elven with lesser degrees of elven blood, the crown must be held by by some one of full elven blood. In either way, it spelled the end of inheritance by House fingolfin as we know it. And by combining the idea that the kingship was interchangeable between houses and that there was some sort of a Salic Law at play, Gil-galad became the only candidate left by default. And when he died, the line of Noldorin High Kings in Middle Earth came to an end.