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#16 | ||||||
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Corpus Cacophonous
Join Date: Jan 2003
Location: A green and pleasant land
Posts: 8,390
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I agree with Aiwendil concerning the artificiality of distinguishing between the "How’s" and "Why’s". To illustrate the point further, it would be perfectly reasonable to give identical answers to both of the questions: "How does a car work?" and "Why does a car work?" In both cases, the explanation could be given by reference to the technical workings of the vehicle (about which I understand very little). Of course, one might make a distinction by responding to the "Why" with "To get people from A to B". But, even then, there is a rational, scientific answer to both the "How" question and the "Why" question. Science can explain how the car works, but science (in a very broad sense) can also explain why cars are used. The same applies to evolution. So, the response to "How does evolution work?" might be "Natural selection". And that would be a perfectly reasonable response to the question "Why does evolution work?" too. Or one might make a distinction and answer the latter question with "To ensure the continuance of life" since, if species do not adapt to changing conditions, then they will die out. In both cases, science can provide the (or at least an) answer. Now, I am not saying that faith cannot provide an explanation of the "Why?". I am simply saying that it does not provide the only explanation. Indeed, both the "How’s" and the "Why’s" can be answered by reference to faith (so the distinction is, again, artificial). However, it seems to me that the key difference between science and faith is that science seeks to explain by reference to objectively verifiable facts (even though those facts may only give rise to a likelihood or even a possibility of the existence of the event which they seek to explain), whereas faith requires no such explanation. Those who hold a particular religious belief do so by virtue of their faith and not by virtue of any objective proof. So, how does this apply to Middle-earth? Well, I agree with what has been said previously concerning the necessity of the existence within Middle-earth of scientific laws with which we, the readers, are familiar. This is what makes it a credible world and believable to us as readers. In this regard, I would testify to the usefulness of Karen Wynn Fonstad's Atlas of Middle-earth in highlighting the way in which Tolkien's world corresponds with our understanding of topography and geology, not to mention climatology, biodiversity and demography. And we are only too aware that Tolkien's languages are very much scientifically based. Tolkien showed his awareness of the need for Middle-earth to work on a scientific, and therefore credible, level in his Letters. In a letter to Naomi Mitchison (Letter #154), he wrote: Quote:
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Later in the same letter, he refers to the transition of the setting for his legendarium from a flat world to a globe: Quote:
Similarly, in a draft of a letter to Peter Hastings (Letter #153), he wrote: Quote:
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The basis of this thread is the relationship between science and a magical world such as Middle-earth. Clearly, Middle-earth contains creatures, objects and forces which are not, in scientific terms, in existence in our world. As has been pointed out, this is precisely what makes it fantasy. But these extracts suggest to me that Tolkien’s approach was to create a world which is, to a significant degree, scientifically credible by reference to the rules of our ‘Primary World’ (in terms of topography, climate, geography etc), but which, where it varies from those rules, is also scientifically credible by reference to its own internal rules (the essence of a modern ‘myth-maker?). In other words, from the perspective of the reader, everything within Middle-earth is scientifically provable within the context of that world. So, it is a fact that Eru exists and that Arda was created in the manner set out in the Ainulindalë. Similarly, ‘magic’ exists and Elves are immortal (as long as Arda remains in being). As has been suggested previously on this thread, it would, I think, be possible to come up with a theory as to “How” (or “Why”) ‘magic’ works in Middle-earth, just as Tolkien suggests that it would be possible to come up with a theory to explain Elven longevity. So how does faith come into it? Well, I think that there are two levels on which one can (and should) address this. First, there is the faith of the good characters within the story. For most, there is no guarantee that Eru exists. Some (such as Hobbits) don’t even have any clear conception of what He is. And yet they have faith that there is, ultimately, a source of Good within Eä and that it will prevail, and they act accordingly (ie on the basis of their faith rather than science or objectively provable facts). Even those who are aware of Eru’s existence (as a fact) must rely on their faith that His Will will prevail. They have no guarantee that it will. Which brings me to the second level, which concerns the faith of the reader. Those who have religious beliefs may (and surely almost certainly will) find the faith shown by the good characters to be applicable to, and reinforcing of, their own faith. And this ‘faith-within-the-story’ can touch even those who do not have strong religious convictions, if they are sufficiently receptive to it, in the sense of ‘enchantment’ (or ‘faerie’ or ‘synchronicity’, call it what you will ) that it brings. But, in both cases, I would suggest that this is only possible through the combination within the story of scientific reality (in our real world terms) and ‘fantasy’ or ’magic’ which is nevertheless internally credible. Take the scientific reality away and the ‘magic’, along with the story, loses its credibility. But take the ‘magic’ away, and the faith becomes grounded in reality and thus adds nothing to what we have already (ie it has no 'added value'. Does that make any sense at all?
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Do you mind? I'm busy doing the fishstick. It's a very delicate state of mind! Last edited by The Saucepan Man; 11-03-2004 at 09:38 PM. Reason: typos |
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