Why was Gandalf attached to TWO Valar? - The Barrow-Downs Discussion Forum

Finwe · 09-09-2003, 07:17 PM

Since Manwë and Varda were so close, they were most often found in each other's company. Therefore, for all practical purposes, they probably counted as one Vala.

Even if they do count as two separate Valar, does it say anywhere that a Maia can only serve one Vala? I don't recall it saying in the Silmarillion that the service of the Maiar was limited. All it says is that the Maiar were the servants of the Valar.

09-09-2003, 07:17 PM	#3
Finwe Deathless Sun Join Date: May 2003 Location: The Royal Suite in the Halls of Mandos Posts: 2,609	Since Manwë and Varda were so close, they were most often found in each other's company. Therefore, for all practical purposes, they probably counted as one Vala. Even if they do count as two separate Valar, does it say anywhere that a Maia can only serve one Vala? I don't recall it saying in the Silmarillion that the service of the Maiar was limited. All it says is that the Maiar were the servants of the Valar. __________________ But Melkor also was there, and he came to the house of Fëanor, and there he slew Finwë King of the Noldor before his doors, and spilled the first blood in the Blessed Realm; for Finwë alone had not fled from the horror of the Dark.

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