King Elrond?

[lord of dor-lomin]

After Turgon's death it passed on to Finarfin's descendants, hence Gil-Gilad, son of Orodreth, grand-son of Finarfin.

posted by-Inderjit Sanghera

Gil-Gilad was Fingon's son, not Orodreth's, so the kingship did not ever pass to Finarfin's house. If anyone could claim the kingship, it would indeed be Elrond.

But you guys are right, he probably didn't because there wasn't much of a kingdom. There were Noldor in Rivendell, and that's pretty much it (the rest were dead or gone to the havens). Plus, maybe in elven kingdoms, descent had to be male to male (hence Dior being known as Thingol's heir, and not necessarily King Dior).

And if it were possible for a kingship to pass on through daughters, then Elrond's claim to high kingship over all the Noldor would beat out Finarfin, because the kingship stays in the house of the oldest son (Fingolfin).

But who knows what the rules are with elves?