King of the Dead vs Witch King

[The 1,000 Reader]

Originally Posted by Boromir88

But I never said someone needed 'flesh' to be capable of doing anything, as you have asserted. I only said that in order to physically bring harm to someone else, one would have to have a physical body.

In other words, flesh to be capable.

Originally Posted by Boromir88

The end of that, I'm sorry, just doesn't make any sense. Isildur was spiteful because of their betrayal, so he cursed them,ther isn't some sort of magical power to keep their bodies intact so they could still fight. They betrayed Gondor, Isildur cursed them until their oath was fulfilled, which they did. After being cursed they hid in their mountains, died, but being cursed their spirits couldn't rest until they fulfilled their oath. Isildur's curse was a show of spite. So, he didn't care whether they were capable of fulfilling their oath or not. He despised them for their betrayal so he laid a curse on them, if they were able to fulfill it good for them, if not too bad shouldn't have betrayed Gondor.

Isildur may have been angry, yes, but he specifically cursed them, not just casted a random spell. A "controlled" curse would likely stay to what was said. Also, standing there and looking scary technically doesn't count as fighting. If the curse was made with specific words, then the curse likely held to those words. It was like a contract.

Overall, the undead army was a special case which we don't have much info on, so all we can do is speculate. Your opinion is equal to mine. If anything, we should be talking about how a man of Numenor pulled a curse out of his rear.