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#1 | |
Odinic Wanderer
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If this is off topic just shoot me down!
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#2 | |||
A Mere Boggart
Join Date: Mar 2004
Location: under the bed
Posts: 4,737
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Some useful grist for t'mill from Osanwe-kenta:
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![]() Of course, if we go down the path that Melian knew Eru's purpose, why should Sauron not have known it? And that leaves us with one of two options - evil was unavoidable as Eru made it happen, or Sauron (and the Dark Side) were actually trying to free Ea from 'fate'. ![]() EDIT And another thing... Thinking about the way that the Ainur entered Ea and were then 'stuck' there until the end of Time, there is an odd occurence of one of the Ainur who does not seem to have been stuck there. Gandalf. Quote:
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Last edited by Lalwendë; 11-12-2006 at 06:19 PM. |
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#3 |
Itinerant Songster
Join Date: Jan 2002
Location: The Edge of Faerie
Posts: 7,066
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I didn't really mean to suggest that Melian had all this in mind when she revealed herself to Thingol. Rather, that she loved him and intended to become his Queen (if that title is appropriate), and all that would ensue therefrom; and it was Eru who knew just what that would all be. I really meant that all those things were results of a once-in-time choice. Sort of like real life, eh?
![]() But I'm not getting answers on the newly stated Dark question: If Sauron didn't need to be incarnate in order to subcreate, own, possess, ruin, torture, and make a Ring to do the same, why become incarnate at all? Was it something that Eru required in order for Valar to be part of the History of Arda? Were there ever any really non-incarnate Valar in Arda? Ulmo does not fit this description, as he was incarnate as Water rather than as Human(oid). |
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#4 |
A Mere Boggart
Join Date: Mar 2004
Location: under the bed
Posts: 4,737
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Just cross posted with you - with some other thoughts. Sorry!
Hmm, but Ulmo's 'form' is an elemental one, one which necessarily interacts with the world. The other Ainur also either take on 'humanoid' (don't like that word) or 'elemental' forms. Those who take on 'elemental' forms seem to become personifications of those elements - e.g. Varda as the stars, Yavanna as plants. They very much become part of the fabric of Arda. So I would say that Sauron too had to take on a form or an 'aspect' in order to interact with Arda too. When Sauron is without physical form all he can do is 'influence', he cannot physically interact with the world. However, there was still the Ring, so something 'physical' of him still existed. So could we say he never really went away for that time? Also, the Ringwraiths existed throughout that time, bound to him.
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Gordon's alive!
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#5 |
Itinerant Songster
Join Date: Jan 2002
Location: The Edge of Faerie
Posts: 7,066
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The problem with saying that Sauron can only influence and not interact, when without Hroa, is that he somehow managed to get the Ring from the sinking Numenor to Middle Earth proper, as Raynor reminded us a few posts back. How did he do that? By the power of the Ring, perhaps? Or was Sauron partly in the Ring, such that he could be considered to have been incarnate even though his body has been destroyed? I think it is an unnecessary conundrum, and the answer is that a fëa does not need to be in a hroa in order to interact/influence/change Arda, depending upon the power of the Maia we're discussing, of course.
As for Gandalf, there is a bit of a mystery there. That Gwaihir says he can see through him could indicate a couple of things: 1. Gwaihir can see hroa-less fëar 2. Gandalf's hroa was transparent I lean toward the second, because Gandalf perceives Frodo as somewhat transparent, lying in the bed at Rivendel (quite early in the tale!); I think we can take it here that Gandalf is looking at Frodo with his hroa eyes, by the way. So Gandalf has been taken out of Time and placed back in Time. This must have been accomplished by Eru since such an action is beyond the capability of any of the Valar. The battle with the Balrog has, first of all, killed Gandalf. His hroa is dead. But his fëa is taken clean out of Arda, not sent to the Halls of Mandos; then it is sent back again to the very same Time and Place (give or take hours/days/whatever). And the fëa is reconnected with its hroa, but revivified and made less "fleshy" by his battle with the Balrog. This has precedent throughout the Legendarium; not only with Frodo, but with the greatest of the Elves; the more purified (burning with the inner fire of their own fëar usually) the Eldar become, the more transparent they become. This seems to be evident with Elrond too. (It's interesting how fëar are represented as the element of fire...) |
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#6 | ||
Eagle of the Star
Join Date: Jan 2006
Location: Sarmisegethuza
Posts: 1,058
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At the time of the making of the Girdle of Doriath, Melian told Thingol that she foresaw the coming of Beren, and he would be more powerful than her magic, since a higher doom drives him. Now, unless Eru revealed to Melian these things only after she met Thingol, she must have known all along about Beren and his doom, her girdle, and, most likely, her presence and role in Middle Earth near Thingol.
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#7 |
A Mere Boggart
Join Date: Mar 2004
Location: under the bed
Posts: 4,737
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I also find a problem in how Sauron got the Ring from Numenor. The answer to it could also lie in the nature of the Ring of course. But we do see one Maia without physical form and that's Saruman, and from the description of what happens to him, it wouldn't seem possible that he could interact with the physical world - after all, surely if he could, then wouldn't he have smote the Hobbits or somesuch? Instead he immediately appeals to the Valar and is rejected. Though perhaps this explains why they send the wind to dissipate him?
Now, there is another possibility as to why Sauron (and indeed Melkor) would want to take on a physical form. The possession of a Hroa actually provides some degree of 'protection', an additional barrier of Unwill to prevent the mind from being perceived. And if you have dark deeds in mind, then you do not want them to be revealed. And yet more ideas... Of course Melkor and Sauron wanted to interact with the Elves, and then with Men and other mortals. Possession of a Hroa would instantly make this easier as a tangible person would be more readily accepted than a spirit. That's just simple psychology, and note also that both our Dark Lords also take on a 'fair' form at first, instantly attractive and appealing. There is also the issue of language, a pertinent one considering the central importance of language to our author. Incarnates have become users of language as habit instead of using sanwe, though Tolkien makes it clear they still have this ability, in some it lies latent and in others they do use it a little even when using language. Is it possible that it was essential to have a Hroa in order to use language?
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