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#1 | |
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Guard of the Citadel
Join Date: Dec 2006
Location: Oxon
Posts: 2,205
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I just remembered about one folk who would surely not use capital punishment, even though they were far less developed then others - the woses.
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The woses were far from the social and economical level reached by Gondor or Rohan, and still, their laws were much more simple and peaceful in the same time.
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“The invisible and the non-existent look very much alike.”
Delos B. McKown |
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#2 | ||||
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Laconic Loreman
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Oooh nice posts throughout the thread. I've enjoyed this discussion so far...
Durelin, Quote:
There seems to be a strong power over words (especially oaths) in Middle-earth...if not, then they would simply be words with no meaning behind them. When Eorl made the oath to Cirion to come to Gondor's aid anytime they were called upon and in return 'finding' Rohan he sealed the choices of all the kings to follow. I'm sure Theoden was a good man and played a part in him aiding Gondor; but I do not doubt also the oath he was bound to played a part (if not bigger). Had Theoden not answered to Gondor's call for aid, Theoden would be in trouble. And trouble that could arguably much worse than being executed. It would effect him spiritually and be a great torment on him...again just ask the Men of Dunharrow. I love the part in the Ring Goes South and Gimli wants an oath to bind the Fellowship together, but Elrond tells him no and warns him why: Quote:
Oath-breaking is arguably the worst 'crime' in LOTR; and your punishment isn't death, it's lifelong torture and misfortune...far worse than execution. The question is what makes Beregond and Hama not obeying orders and 'breaking their oaths' different from say the Men of Dunharrow. I think it all depends upon the situation. The Men of Dunharrow pledged to Isildur they would fight for Gondor; but they turned to worshipping Sauron and than fled. Doesn't sound very 'good' and they are slapped with a curse. Hama and Beregond's were different in the sense that arguably it was better to actually not obey. What I love about Hama and Beregond is that they are guards, yet they do not act like what we would expect guards to act like. They don't act like mindless robots of 'Yes, sir...I'll do whatever you say sir.' They are able to make their own judgements for themselves and reach their own decisions about what's 'right and wrong.' I can't put it any better than from the words of Hama: Quote:
Beregond felt like the best thing to do was save Faramir's life and he went through any costs to do it. Afterall Gandalf does say Denethor did not have the right to take Faramir's life, let a lone he didn't even have the 'right' to take his own. Denethor acted like he had the right of the Numenorean Kings to decide when their own death was and as Gandalf points this out to him, he does not have this right. Or even perhaps it depends upon the person who had the oath broken against them. There are two parties involved in oaths, if one party breaks it, then perhaps it's up to the other party to decide if they should be punished for breaking their oath or not. If we look at the Men of Dunharrow again, they broke their oath to Isildur and it is Isildur who comes and decides to curse them. He was the person the Men of Dunharrow swore to, so he is the one that makes the decision on whether they should be punished for going against their word. If we look at Beregond and Hama, they did break their oaths to their Lords, however you could argue that their Lords absolved them (at least partially) of their oath-breaking. Theoden called out Hama as an 'inept doorward' yet he realized what Hama did was try to make the best decision for his lord. Theoden had the oath broken against him, so it is Theoden who decides whether the oath-breaker be punished or not...and luckily he decided no...except to have him run as an 'errand boy' for a little while. Now technically Beregond broke his oath to Denethor...however Denethor is dead and his new lords (for a short time atleast) becomes Aragorn...until Aragorn expels him from the Tower Guard. Nevertheless for a short time it is Aragorn that is his new Lord and it is he that is faced with the decision of Beregond's punishment. And Aragorn absolves Beregond from all of his crimes. Aragorn does feel like he must do some justice and punish Beregond, however as seen he does absolve Beregond from his crimes. Would you know it's kind of like the Men of Dunharrow. In order to 'break the curse' they had to fulfill their oath to Gondor. Well, it's kind of hard now that Isildur's dead, so it would be Isildur's heirs that would be passed a long with the decision on whether to hold their oaths fulfilled. And it is Aragorn who does this as well. So, I think it's whether one is punished or not for breaking an oath comes down to the situation. Was it for the 'best' that the oath was broken? Or, perhaps even more important is it up to the 'other party' to decide whether you are punished for breaking the oath or not. Well technically Beregond and Hama did get punished for breaking their oaths, it just wasn't to the extent that the Men of Dunharrow were punished. And seeing as the 'victims' absolved the 'pertetrators' of their oath-breaking than the oath was essentially fulfilled and absolved as well. I'd also like to point out Tolkien also uses the concept of 'weregild.' The punishment isn't execution for the criminal, however it was a form of punishment for those who committed murder (or injury) against a person's family/property. Weregild is an Old English word that means 'man-price' and it was an idea originating in Germanic societies. The idea was to stop family feuds from happening and about keeping family honor without having to resort to 'capital punishment' or 'physical revenge'. If somebody killed one of your family members (or injury to any sort of property) in order to compensate for the crime, the perpetrator must give some sort of payment. In Germanic societies the payment was based upon rank. If someone killed a slave of yours the compensation payment wouldn't be all that much. However the murder of a King and his son the payment would be absolutely astronomical. Isildur lays the claim of 'weregild' on taking the ring for the death of his father and brother (caused by Sauron): Quote:
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Fenris Penguin
Last edited by Boromir88; 12-28-2006 at 11:35 PM. |
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#3 | |||||
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Spirit of the Lonely Star
Join Date: Mar 2002
Posts: 5,133
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Durelin,
Fascinating topic. I have some thoughts on this, though they are leading in a slightly different direction than a number of comments on the thread. First, Boromir88 has already cited one instance in Gondor where Beregond's treason might normally merit the death penalty, yet when the actual judgment came the decision was made to render a different punishment. This excellent example isn't the only case where an individual "deserved" death by the laws of Gondor and yet the penalty decreed was one that stopped short of death. There is another instance even more important to the story that involves Gollum and the Pool of Ithilien. Gollum comes within a hair's breadth of being executed here. First time readers could not know what would happen on Mount Doom if this penalty of death was actually carried out but those of us who've already read the book definitely understand that executing Gollum would change the entire outcome of the story. In my mind, this is one of the most critical scenes in LotR and bears close scrutiny. Excuse me if I quote chunks of it and then consider the wording. On March 8, 3019, Gollum found the Forbidden Pool and plunged into the water to catch fish. He was spotted by Anborn, a Ranger of Ithilien under Faramir's command. Faramir brought Frodo to a ledge overlooking the pool, and threatened to have the creature below shot, not knowing precisely who he is but suspecting his ties with Frodo. (The italics are mine, and I will explain in a minute why I've highlighted these words....) Quote:
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In these same passages, there are also two references that allude back to earlier scenes in the Legendarium when the whole issue of pity and mercy was first raised in terms of Bilbo and Frodo. One of these is an indirect reference that I did not quote before where Frodo reveals to Faramir that Gollum once bore the Ring. Faramir responds in this way: Quote:
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As to hobbits, I agree with everyone on this thread. Nothing in Hobbit society suggests that the Shire had capital punishment--even in older, cruder times, exile and shunning were the rule for Hobbits. I know there is a statement somewhere (though I can't put my hands on the quote) that no hobbit had murdered another hobbit for many years. This raises an interesting question. Clearly, men did have the death penalty. Moreover, the quote above implies that even the Elves were capable of killing Gollum. Frodo states Gandalf "forebade the Elves" from killing him. Why would Gandalf issue such an order unless he thought the Elves were capable of slaying Gollum in some form or fashion, whether as punishment or simply as a way to stop him from fleeing? If both men and Elves were capable of slaying Gollum, we could even take this equation one step further. Perhaps Frodo's suitability as a Ringbearer not only rested on his general ability to resist evil, but specifically on the fact that he came from the one society that did not practice (or perhaps need?) capital punishment. In my opinion, Tolkien clearly regarded capital punishment as something that ideally should not be used. P.S. This is a dreadfully long post composed in spurts and chunks, which means I crossposted with Boromir88's latest comments....
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Multitasking women are never too busy to vote. Last edited by Child of the 7th Age; 12-29-2006 at 01:51 AM. |
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#4 | |||
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Guard of the Citadel
Join Date: Dec 2006
Location: Oxon
Posts: 2,205
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Well my eternal fascination for small folk has helped me find another quote...
As I was reading The Ride of the Rohirrim I found another quote suggesting treason could be punished with death, and as already very well explained by Boromir88, oathbreaking: Quote:
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“The invisible and the non-existent look very much alike.”
Delos B. McKown |
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#5 | |
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A Voice That Gainsayeth
Join Date: Nov 2006
Location: In that far land beyond the Sea
Posts: 7,431
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A really interesting thread and very interesting thoughts, unfortunately I came a little bit late and now I can't think of anything I might add. Perhaps later
Only one thing to that thing with Thranduil you mentioned:Quote:
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"Should the story say 'he ate bread,' the dramatic producer can only show 'a piece of bread' according to his taste or fancy, but the hearer of the story will think of bread in general and picture it in some form of his own." -On Fairy-Stories |
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#6 |
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Guard of the Citadel
Join Date: Dec 2006
Location: Oxon
Posts: 2,205
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I remembered about a very clearly defined system of laws in Middle-earth: in the Shire, after Saruman gained control of it.
The rules were very clear, and Sharkey made sure everyone knew them and respected them. Those that had the courage to oppose him suffered severe punishments such as imprisonment or physical punishments. The ruffians were pretty dangerous men, so most of the Hobbits respected the rules, but we have some accounts of some who didn't and that paid the price. Shortly after the New Year of 3019, Lotho proclaimed himself Chief Shirriff. An ever-growing list of Rules were imposed on the Hobbits of the Shire, and those who disobeyed were sent to the Lockholes. Shirriff-houses were built in many villages and the number of Shiriffis was increased to enforce the Rules. Food and other goods were gathered for central distribution, but the Hobbits got short shrift. Beer and pipe-weed were reserved for the Chief's Men and inns were closed. Lotho might be the victim of a capital punishment, perhaps because he also opposed Saruman once he came to the Shire and his men started destroying and burning homes, trees, and farmland...this is however unclear.
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“The invisible and the non-existent look very much alike.”
Delos B. McKown |
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#7 | |||
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A Voice That Gainsayeth
Join Date: Nov 2006
Location: In that far land beyond the Sea
Posts: 7,431
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Good point, TM! In this, I believe, Tolkien showed explicitely the misuse (or: "overuse") of laws to ill. I think the Shire was also a nice example, in minor, of how Saruman turned from intentions "for greater good" using wrong ways, to total destruction. I think this is also one of the options how "law" (later turning to unjust rule) is taken in Middle-Earth, so I think it's quite good for the topic to remember that.
This is what Saruman told to Gandalf before imprisoning him in Orthanc: Quote:
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So this is quite different taking of law. The Hobbits had no need of laws, and look what the laws did there - it ruined them. These laws were there where they were not needed, so that the freedom totally disappeared and the folks had nothing they could do - so instead of building, the destruction took place. So, we have the places where the law was needed and was not (the Orc, I think, are a nice example for this), but we can also see, how the nonlawful law turned out to be destructible - and in the end, the extreme is again Mordor.
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"Should the story say 'he ate bread,' the dramatic producer can only show 'a piece of bread' according to his taste or fancy, but the hearer of the story will think of bread in general and picture it in some form of his own." -On Fairy-Stories |
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#8 |
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A Mere Boggart
Join Date: Mar 2004
Location: under the bed
Posts: 4,737
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Elves did use capital punishment. Eol is thrown from the walls of Gondolin as punishment. Though its one I often think was mistaken - surely locking him up would have been more fitting? Humane? An elf driven mad by his wife running away? Anyway, the results of it are quite far reaching as Tolkien shows!
I like what Child says, she picks up on a major theme on Tolkien's work, that we may have the 'right' to do something, but is it always the 'right' thing to exercise that right? The words of Gandalf remind us that life is precious, but there are also several instances where someone who has committed terrible wrongs is given a chance of forgiveness or clemency. Grima is given this by Theoden, and Saruman by Gandalf. Had Tolkien's world really been the medieval world then there would have been no question in cases such as theirs, they would have been executed in the most gruesome manner. Traitors were routinely subject to being Hung, Drawn and Quartered (hung until not quite dead, then their skin flayed from them and their body eviscerated and cut into quarters, all while still alive). Oath breakers in Northern society may have had the Blood Eagle enacted on them - being cut open and then spread out, pinned to a wall or tree until they died. I don't think there's any question Tolkien will not have known about medieval 'justice' due to his reading and knowledge, but we don't see any of these punishments in his work, unless it is something done by the 'bad guys'. The possibility of capital punishment exists in the West, but we rarely see it used, instead we see leaders choosing not to use it, as though Tolkien makes a statement about their sense of fairplay and justice. Of course Theoden must dismiss Hama from his post, he has not carried out orders; this would be exactly the same in the modern world. But he has the sense of justice not to put the man to death. You could compare Beregond deserting his post with the deserters of WWI. These poor men were shot at dawn; some still remain unpardoned even though we live in more enlightened times. Tolkien will have known about these cases. Beregond deserts, and according to the ancient laws of Gondor, he could be put to death for this. But Aragorn chooses not to do that. He makes sure that Beregond is 'punished', albeit in a symbolic way, by dismissing him from his post; it's 'symbolic' because in reality all that happens is he is reposted.
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