The Balrog vs The Witch King

[obloquy]

The phrase's meaning does not hinge upon the "an," though the "an" is there only because Tolkien meant the phrase in a certain way. The sentence structure provides a very clear picture of what Tolkien meant, but I won't try to explain it in detail. However, note that he is talking about the Witch-King receiving the "force" and the command from two separate givers, as indicated by his need to specify that the Witch-King received the command from Sauron specifically. Before and after that interjection, Sauron is not the one effecting changes in the Witch-King's stature, it is the storyteller doing so. The storyteller gives the Witch-King an added demonic force in Vol III by having him receive command of an army from Sauron. That's what the sentence says. I am not twisting the phrase's meaning, I am gleaning its meaning from its structure.

Originally Posted by Raynor

His power at that time, as it has been noted several times in this thread, last time by CSteefel, is mainly fear. That power, as The hunt for the ring, UT, informs us, cannot be in fact concealed, being the major drawback of using the nazgul.

Tolkien does not actually say this. He says this of the Nazgul, but the Witch-King is "more powerful in all ways" than the others. You're right that the fear can't be concealed: so in the example of the Witch-King revealing himself that I provided below, what would you say he was previously concealing? Remember that this happened before Vol III and the Witch-King's alleged augmentation.

Originally Posted by Raynor

What still remains unaddressed is that the WK use of magic during the times he encountered Frodo is far inferior to the Pelennor Fields. It is these times that I have called into question, not when WK met informants or Gandalf. This is when he was closest to his ultimate goal in the mission, but failed to impress by magic, although it would have helped him a lot.

What magic might have helped him? A lightning sword?

Originally Posted by Flight to the Ford

Then the leader, who was now half across the Ford, stood up menacing in his stirrups, and raised up his hand. Frodo was stricken dumb. He felt his tongue cleave to his mouth, and his heart labouring. His sword broke and fell out of his shaking hand.

That's every bit as impressive as breaking a gate, right?

Originally Posted by davem

My problem with this argument is that its only a gate & doesn't need much effort to knock over if you've got a massive battering ram to hand.

I think Raynor must assume that the breaking of the gate is representative of other particular powers the Witch-King would have been stupid not to use in prior encounters. Like a magical lasso or something, I guess. davem is correct, though, and his posts have been good. As have Boromir88's: the Witch-King accomplished all manner of death and destruction (which no other Nazgul did) prior to his presence in LotR, and Tolkien's reference to an increase of stature in Vol III is relative only to the Witch-King's stature in Vol I and Vol II, not his pre-LotR stature.

[CSteefel]

Originally Posted by obloquy

The storyteller gives the Witch-King an added demonic force in Vol III by having him receive command of an army from Sauron. That's what the sentence says. I am not twisting the phrase's meaning, I am gleaning its meaning from its structure.

Hmmm, why is giving somebody command of an army a "demonic force". If Tolkien had meant that, why not just say "Sauron gave the Witch King command of his armies". The adjective "demonic" doesn't make much sense when applied to an army of non-magical beings (Southrons, orcs and the like)...

[obloquy]

Originally Posted by CSteefel

Hmmm, why is giving somebody command of an army a "demonic force". If Tolkien had meant that, why not just say "Sauron gave the Witch King command of his armies". The adjective "demonic" doesn't make much sense when applied to an army of non-magical beings (Southrons, orcs and the like)...

It's not applied to the army, it's applied to the Witch-King's presence, which is more open and prominent. The expression does not have to mean actual demon powers; in fact, I doubt Tolkien would ever have used the phrase to mean that. It conveys a sense of the Witch-King's presence on the battle field, which was at this time especially demonical.

Originally Posted by Raynor

Nope; not even a fraction of its efficacy and power. It is one of the occasions I repeatedly referred to when the WK uses his power at far lesser levels than the situation requires and his supposed power permits. Also, the timing of it, the fact that the WK bids his time for 14 days and uses it in his 25th hour, when Frodo is already on enemy land, beyond the waters he rightly fears, shows that this is more for show and spite than for practical uses.

So you're saying that the Witch-King's enhancement was the new ability to use his sorcery for practical purposes rather than merely show? Because striking a person dumb and shattering his sword is every bit as demonstrative of magical powers as assisting in breaking a gate.

Originally Posted by Raynor

I believe that's a false dichotomy. I see no reason why the phrase can't mean he received the force from Sauron too. While I agree that the phrase can be viewed from your point also, it is definitely not the only one, especially considering the larger context.

"The larger context" is narrative decisions, which you have, up until now, felt it prudent to completely ignore. The larger context is not how the War of the Ring played out, and what kinds of measures Sauron went to; all of that is covered in Tolkien's "historical" texts, where he makes no mention of Sauron literally enhancing the Witch-King's abilities. My analysis of the sentence structure is correct, and the interjection (regarding Sauron) is presented as a reason for the stated effect.

Originally Posted by Raynor

What different manners of death and destruction do you have in mind? And how do you know the other nazgul didn't do them?

Whatever means the Witch-King employed in his open war against Men and Elves prior to the LotR is what I had in mind. Tolkien isn't specific about them. Do you think it was solely this power of fear that made him capable of these conquests as king of his own realm? None of the other Nazgul have this kind of history, and it's because the Witch-King is "more powerful in all ways" than the others by nature, not because of this putative late-game enhancement.