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Old 08-02-2009, 10:12 AM   #1
Galin
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Originally Posted by Inziladun
I had forgotten that quote from the Prologue. I recalled Celeborn going to Rivendell, but I don't believe Celeborn was of the High Elves. Wasn't he one of the Sindar from Doriath?
Yes Celeborn was Sindarin -- the Teler of Aman idea being essentially a draft idea.

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The only explanation for the apparent variance between the statements in the Silm and FOTR would seem to be that some of the remaining High Elves were not of the Noldor, though I don't know how that could be.
It could be because the term High-Elves appears sometimes equated with Eldar (despite the definition of Tareldar published in Morgoth's Ring). For the latest bolstering of this usage (gleaned from Tolkien's own examples), see Christopher Tolkien's description of the Quendi in his Introduction to The Children of Húrin.

I don't know if Tolkien meant the two texts to be taken this way: in other words, maybe the text published in The Lord of the Rings was meant to supersede the description in Of the Rings of Power; but in any case it appears that 'High Elves' can have more than one application.
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Old 08-02-2009, 11:59 AM   #2
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Originally Posted by Galin View Post
I don't know if Tolkien meant the two texts to be taken this way: in other words, maybe the text published in The Lord of the Rings was meant to supersede the description in Of the Rings of Power; but in any case it appears that 'High Elves' can have more than one application.
Upon further examination, it seems 'High Elves' in LOTR does refer exclusively to the Noldor.

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'These are High Elves! They spoke the name of Elbereth!' said Frodo in amazement!
Quote:
'Gildor Inglorion of the House of Finrod. We are Exiles, and most of our kindred have long ago departed and we too are now only tarrying here a while, ere we return over the Great Sea. But some of our kinsfolk dwell still in peace in Rivendell.
Exiles=Noldor

I found another quote in ROTK that supports the statement in the Prologue.

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Then Elrond and Galadriel rode on.....with them went many Elves of the High Kindred who would no longer stay in Middle-earth.
So, the answer to the question of when the last of the High Elves left for the West seems to depend upon which text Tolkien intended to be the 'final word'; the Silmarillion or the LOTR.
I would prefer to think they all went with Elrond, as that simply seems the most fitting to me.
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Old 08-02-2009, 02:18 PM   #3
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Originally Posted by Inziladun
Upon further examination, it seems 'High Elves' in LOTR does refer exclusively to the Noldor.
I don't think this is necessarily so. An instance in Appendix B appears to include the Sindar, and is arguably (in part) the source for Robert Foster's comment below. And the Sindar would used the name Elbereth too -- with reference to the statement from Frodo that you raised.

In my opinion a stronger statement for your case appears in Appendix F. But my point is, since two applications appear to exist, even if one outweighs the other in number, one cannot assume an exclusively Noldorin application exists for all occurances in The Lord of the Rings.

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Robert Foster's guide (a version written before Silmarillion was published): 'High Elves The Eldar.'

Hammond And Scull (The Lord of the Rings Reader's Companion, chapter Three Is Company).: '(Elsewhere Tolkien equates Eldar with the High Elves (see note for p. 43),...'

Christopher Tolkien (Introduction to Children of Húrin): '... and they are called the Eldar, the Elves of the Great Journey, the High Elves: distinct from those who, refusing the summons, chose Middle-earth for their land and their destiny. They are the 'lesser Elves', called Avari, the Unwilling.
So again, what about The Lord of the Rings alone? Perhaps one can interpret the term to refer to the Exiles at all instances, but I don't see this as a given necessarily.

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Old 08-02-2009, 05:17 PM   #4
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Originally Posted by Galin View Post
So again, what about The Lord of the Rings alone? Perhaps one can interpret the term to refer to the Exiles at all instances, but I don't see this as a given necessarily.
Well, going back to the Letter #144 quote, Tolkien, at least at that time, was apparently certain that the High Elves encountered in LOTR were Noldorin.
He refers to them as 'Exiles', and 'part of one of the last main kindreds of the Eldar: the Noldor.'
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Old 08-02-2009, 06:00 PM   #5
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The fact remains that after Elrond, Galadriel and Gandalf left Middle Earth, there were still in total many thousands of Elves who remained there who hadn't yet sailed, who lived in at least the following locations :-

- west of the Shire
- Rivendell
- Woodland Realm, Mirkwood
- Lorien
- East Lorien, Mirkwood
- Ithilien

It's also possible that some elves may have been in the far east of Middle Earth, having never made the journey westward throughout the ages.

So did they all sail eventually ?
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Old 08-02-2009, 06:54 PM   #6
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So did they all sail eventually ?
My feeling is that all did not. The Silvan Elves had not heard the Sea's call, and they seemed quite content to continue on in their forest realms as long as they could. As a comparitively simple and rustic lot, probably some of them were uninformed as to their ultimate fate in ME if they remained.
This ties into the Círdan question. If all Elves did not eventually sail into the West, either because of conscious refusal or ignorance of their plight, how would Círdan know when the 'Last Ship' was to sail? How long would he wait for the last two or three to make up their minds before finally deciding they were a lost cause, and leaving himself?
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Old 08-03-2009, 07:36 AM   #7
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Originally Posted by Inziladun View Post
Well, going back to the Letter #144 quote, Tolkien, at least at that time, was apparently certain that the High Elves encountered in LOTR were Noldorin.

He refers to them as 'Exiles', and 'part of one of the last main kindreds of the Eldar: the Noldor.'
Right, letter 144 was written to Naomi Mitchison in April 1954, where Tolkien says the High Elves met in the book are Exiles. In letter 154 to Naomi Mitchison in September 1954 Tolkien appears to equate High Elves with Eldar rather -- this is the reference that Hammond and Scull note in their Companion actually.

But rather than argue that Tolkien changed his mind later that same year (to possibly change it again some time later), I would rather suggest that two applications existed, for it is easy enough to imagine how High Elves came to be equated with Eldar (among the Quendi 'the Eldar were as kings' according to Appendix F). The term Eldar itself appears to have altered in reference as well.

And yet it's also easily seen how the same term could technically refer to those Eldar who had passed over Sea. For me the question becomes, how is it used in The Lord of the Rings proper? and need it be used consistently, even there?
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Old 08-03-2009, 09:22 AM   #8
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High Elves

Another factor to consider is that most of hte Noldor would not have been to Aman rather they would be descendants of those. The various disasters sufered by the Noldor kingdoms in Beleriand must have resulted in the deaths of most of them. After the Valar and their host overthrew Morgoth they recalled the Exiles some of whom answered the call and some of whom did not. Those Noldor born in Middle Earth were technically Dark Elves and yet the culture seems to still be referred to as "High Elves."

There also seems to be much merging between the surviving Sindar and Noldor in the Second Age, at least they are a single kindgom under Gil-galad but again they seem to be referred to collectively as High Elves.

Yet the use of the term is still not consistent because if High Elves equates to Eldar which equates to all Elves who at least BEGAN thejourney to Aman then the Silvan Elves should technically be Eldar also but Tolkien distinguishes them from High Elves (I noticed Unifinished Tales, Galadriel and Celeborn, states that the Silvan Elves remembered with pride that they were "in origin" Eldar). Does that mean the Green Elves of Ossiriand (who broke off from the Elves of Greenwood) are considered Eldar/High Elves just because they resumed their journey? It almost seems there is a geographical boundary distinguishing the Eldar, either the Mistly Mountains or the Blue Mountains.
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Old 08-03-2009, 10:38 AM   #9
Galin
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(...) Yet the use of the term is still not consistent because if High Elves equates to Eldar which equates to all Elves who at least BEGAN the journey to Aman then the Silvan Elves should technically be Eldar also but Tolkien distinguishes them from High Elves (I noticed Unifinished Tales, Galadriel and Celeborn, states that the Silvan Elves remembered with pride that they were "in origin" Eldar). Does that mean the Green Elves of Ossiriand (who broke off from the Elves of Greenwood) are considered Eldar/High Elves just because they resumed their journey? It almost seems there is a geographical boundary distinguishing the Eldar, either the Mistly Mountains or the Blue Mountains.
I would suggest that any instances in The Lord of the Rings where High Elves might equate with Eldar, it does so with Eldar in the sense of West Elves.

As I noted above, Eldar itself has variant references, especially considering 'unpublished' text. Again, going by what Tolkien himself published in The Lord of the Rings at least, Eldar refers to the West Elves -- the Elves who passed Over Sea plus the Sindar only, and does not include the East-elves of Lórien or Mirkwood.

BTW, interesting again is Christopher Tolkien's entry for Eldar in The Children of Húrin (list of names):

Quote:
Eldar The Elves of the Great Journey out of the East to Beleriand.
To Beleriand 'and (some) beyond' yes, but this is basically Tolkien's definition of Eldar in The Lord of the Rings -- in other words, 'as far West as Beleriand' and thus the Sindar are West-Elves or Eldar -- while the East-elves of Mirkwood and Lórien are 'not Eldar' (Tolkien avoids the term Avari in the published text, which means something more specific).

In general the 'problem' is, as in the Primary World, terms change or can have different applications depending on who is using them, and when. And in this circumstance, we are also trying to find a certain measure of consistency when dealing with what are essentially draft texts (or statements in letters), mixed with author-published 'final' texts.
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