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#1 | ||
Ghost Prince of Cardolan
Join Date: May 2007
Posts: 1,036
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I don't know if Tolkien meant the two texts to be taken this way: in other words, maybe the text published in The Lord of the Rings was meant to supersede the description in Of the Rings of Power; but in any case it appears that 'High Elves' can have more than one application. |
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#2 | ||||
Gruesome Spectre
Join Date: Dec 2000
Location: Heaven's doorstep
Posts: 8,039
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I found another quote in ROTK that supports the statement in the Prologue. Quote:
I would prefer to think they all went with Elrond, as that simply seems the most fitting to me.
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Music alone proves the existence of God. |
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#3 | ||
Ghost Prince of Cardolan
Join Date: May 2007
Posts: 1,036
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Quote:
In my opinion a stronger statement for your case appears in Appendix F. But my point is, since two applications appear to exist, even if one outweighs the other in number, one cannot assume an exclusively Noldorin application exists for all occurances in The Lord of the Rings. Quote:
Last edited by Galin; 08-03-2009 at 07:51 AM. |
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#4 | |
Gruesome Spectre
Join Date: Dec 2000
Location: Heaven's doorstep
Posts: 8,039
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Quote:
He refers to them as 'Exiles', and 'part of one of the last main kindreds of the Eldar: the Noldor.'
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Music alone proves the existence of God. |
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#5 |
Wight
Join Date: Aug 2006
Location: Barad-Dur
Posts: 196
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The fact remains that after Elrond, Galadriel and Gandalf left Middle Earth, there were still in total many thousands of Elves who remained there who hadn't yet sailed, who lived in at least the following locations :-
- west of the Shire - Rivendell - Woodland Realm, Mirkwood - Lorien - East Lorien, Mirkwood - Ithilien It's also possible that some elves may have been in the far east of Middle Earth, having never made the journey westward throughout the ages. So did they all sail eventually ? |
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#6 |
Gruesome Spectre
Join Date: Dec 2000
Location: Heaven's doorstep
Posts: 8,039
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My feeling is that all did not. The Silvan Elves had not heard the Sea's call, and they seemed quite content to continue on in their forest realms as long as they could. As a comparitively simple and rustic lot, probably some of them were uninformed as to their ultimate fate in ME if they remained.
This ties into the Círdan question. If all Elves did not eventually sail into the West, either because of conscious refusal or ignorance of their plight, how would Círdan know when the 'Last Ship' was to sail? How long would he wait for the last two or three to make up their minds before finally deciding they were a lost cause, and leaving himself?
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Music alone proves the existence of God. Last edited by Inziladun; 08-02-2009 at 09:35 PM. |
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#7 | |
Ghost Prince of Cardolan
Join Date: May 2007
Posts: 1,036
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Quote:
But rather than argue that Tolkien changed his mind later that same year (to possibly change it again some time later), I would rather suggest that two applications existed, for it is easy enough to imagine how High Elves came to be equated with Eldar (among the Quendi 'the Eldar were as kings' according to Appendix F). The term Eldar itself appears to have altered in reference as well. And yet it's also easily seen how the same term could technically refer to those Eldar who had passed over Sea. For me the question becomes, how is it used in The Lord of the Rings proper? and need it be used consistently, even there? |
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#8 |
Haunting Spirit
Join Date: May 2009
Posts: 70
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High Elves
Another factor to consider is that most of hte Noldor would not have been to Aman rather they would be descendants of those. The various disasters sufered by the Noldor kingdoms in Beleriand must have resulted in the deaths of most of them. After the Valar and their host overthrew Morgoth they recalled the Exiles some of whom answered the call and some of whom did not. Those Noldor born in Middle Earth were technically Dark Elves and yet the culture seems to still be referred to as "High Elves."
There also seems to be much merging between the surviving Sindar and Noldor in the Second Age, at least they are a single kindgom under Gil-galad but again they seem to be referred to collectively as High Elves. Yet the use of the term is still not consistent because if High Elves equates to Eldar which equates to all Elves who at least BEGAN thejourney to Aman then the Silvan Elves should technically be Eldar also but Tolkien distinguishes them from High Elves (I noticed Unifinished Tales, Galadriel and Celeborn, states that the Silvan Elves remembered with pride that they were "in origin" Eldar). Does that mean the Green Elves of Ossiriand (who broke off from the Elves of Greenwood) are considered Eldar/High Elves just because they resumed their journey? It almost seems there is a geographical boundary distinguishing the Eldar, either the Mistly Mountains or the Blue Mountains.
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#9 | ||
Ghost Prince of Cardolan
Join Date: May 2007
Posts: 1,036
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Quote:
As I noted above, Eldar itself has variant references, especially considering 'unpublished' text. Again, going by what Tolkien himself published in The Lord of the Rings at least, Eldar refers to the West Elves -- the Elves who passed Over Sea plus the Sindar only, and does not include the East-elves of Lórien or Mirkwood. BTW, interesting again is Christopher Tolkien's entry for Eldar in The Children of Húrin (list of names): Quote:
In general the 'problem' is, as in the Primary World, terms change or can have different applications depending on who is using them, and when. And in this circumstance, we are also trying to find a certain measure of consistency when dealing with what are essentially draft texts (or statements in letters), mixed with author-published 'final' texts. |
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