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#1 | |||
Ghost Prince of Cardolan
Join Date: Aug 2012
Posts: 785
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Quote:
I don't think it's unreasonable for the Lord of the Nazgûl to have been a Númenórean, but yes it's important to remember that he wasn't necessarily one. Quote:
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The Númenóreans had been settling Middle-earth during the reign of Tar-Minastir, Tar-Ciryatan's grandfather, however, which was still about a century after the War of the Elves and Sauron, so there were plenty of opportunities when Sauron might have been dispensing Rings.
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"Since the evening of that day we have journeyed from the shadow of Tol Brandir." "On foot?" cried Éomer. |
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#2 | ||
Wight
Join Date: Dec 2006
Location: The best seat in the Golden Perch
Posts: 219
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Quote:
Gandalf's words to Frodo in Shadow of the Past are the best indication I can find: Quote:
Smeagol/Gollum had the Ring for about 600 years, but "it was long since he had worn it much: in the black darkness it was seldom needed" so he didn't become a wraith. As Hobbit-kind he was more resilient too, of course. Bilbo had it for 60, and was already starting to feel "all thin, sort of stretched, if you know what I mean: like butter that has been scraped over too much bread". Also a Hobbit, also more resilient. I think taking a median-point in Atanamir's reign and assuming that they used the Rings a lot, 100 years would be plenty of time for an already corrupted Man to become a Ringwraith. A total guess of course but it seems reasonable.
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Then one appeared among us, in our own form visible, but greater and more beautiful; and he said that he had come out of pity. |
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