So you think that the term 'pride' is used in different contexts. Fair enough, is then the original question (did I have an original question, or was it just a bundle of gibberish?) reducible to confusions in our language-game? (I'm going to read some Wittgenstein!)
This seems odd. It renders a word that is apparently quite important to Tolkien into a vague expression. I'm not sure I could accept this. Is pride not a single, definable thing?
*If 'definable' is not a word............it is now!*
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Los Ingobernables de Harlond
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