Faramir's (and Boromir's) Dream

[Kitanna]

Originally Posted by Fordim Hedgethistle

Why do we even need to assume that anyone or anything or any force 'sent' the dream to either of them? Aren't dreams self-generated? I've always just assumed that Faramir and Boromir didn't just 'get' the dream but were able to have it thanks to their Numenorean birthright. One of the true marks of power in Middle Earth is an aptitude for prescience, the gift of vision. The more powerful figures are able to exercise come control over that, but with others it is more intuitive: for Faramir and Boromir it came in the form of passive dreams. That Faramir had the dream more often is testimony to his greater will and truer Numenorean heritage.

I'd always assumed it was fate that sent the dream, but never did I think of it in terms of a Numenorean birthright, but it would make sense. That would certainly explain why Faramir received the dream more often than Boromir. It was stated he showed more of the ancient line than his brother (or at least I believe this was stated).

No one needed to send the dreams. Because Frodo had several prophetic dreams himself. One pertaining to the ship and the leaving from Middle-Earth. I think it's possible that those that experienced such dreams didn't have them sent by an external force, but as Fordim said they were self-generated and self-contained.