Well, I'm still a bit confused.If Anarion was ruler of Gondor and Isildur of Arnor, and Aragorn is Isildur's Heir and not Anarion's, shouldn't Aragorn be King only of Arnor(though it doesn't exist) and Gondor still be ruled by the Stewards.Or is it, because Aragorn is the only living Heir of either of the Houses-that is House if Isildur and House of Anarion, so he gets to be King of both the North and the South.Please tell me, as I'm really confused.
Also, Aragorn is of the line of the Chieftains
of the Dunedain, and not of the Kings, so how is he a King?
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