Name Changes?

[Inderjit Sanghera]

My understanding is this. Originally there were to be two separate Eldarin stems, one meaning "reddish-brown" and the other meaning "spray/spindrift". The change proposed in "Ros" is that there is only one stem, meaning "spray", and that this is Beorian. But this had to be dropped because of "Cair Andros".

Yes-but one wonders why the word -ros has two entirely different meanings? Tolkien comments on this in the Problem or Ros.

Of course we could just say that -ros had two unconnected meanings, regardless of whether or not this makes any sense, claim as is said in 'Of Dwarves and Men' and 'Rivers and Beacon Hills of Gondor' that the rendering of the names within Gondor was inncaurate because of the inadequate knowledge of Sindarin of the people who named the places in Gondor and so and so keep -ros as a word for the colour red, and -ros also as a Bëorian word for spray/spindrift.

Nonetheless it's an interesting question and I'm eager to hear what others have to say.

As am I. It would be helpful if a language expert interjected, or anyone from this forum, it would be nice for other opinions, beside mine and yours.

You're right that the sons of Feanor tended to Sindarinize their mother-names, but in a sense, "Amrod" is a Sindarinization of his mother-name. For "Ambarto" was the mother-name he was actually known by prior to his death, "Umbarto" being the true but unused form

No one really called him A/Umbarto. They called each other Ambarussa, and everyone else called them Minyarussa and Atyarussa. Fëanor of course would have adress them by their father names. Maybe when they went to Formenos, they were adress by their father names, a large part of that host being wholly loyal to Fëanor and thus adopt his cutoms?

Of course, one can see the sensibility of adopting 'Amrod' rather then 'Amarthan', since it was his 'proper' name, but I think Amarthan would have been the one that was remembered because of his fate.

Does it mean that the Noldor called him "Amarthan" after his death? Or does it mean that texts call him "Amarthan"?

I think it does means both. If he was called Amarthan then surely it would have been written so, by the Ñoldorin scribes or the Númenóreans.

Do you know roughly when that note was written?

Same time as the Shibboleth, c.1968.