Frodo at Sammath Naur - The Barrow-Downs Discussion Forum

Essex · 01-22-2004, 06:40 AM

In all these eloquent and interesting posts, I believe it all boils down to one simple thing.

Whether Frodo claimed the ring of his own accord or via another power forcing him to do so, to me he did not fail at the end because of his compassion to let Gollum live. He, and Middle-earth were redeemed because of this one act.

Sorry if I've gone off tangent, but this is surely what Tolkien meant when you look at the plot of the book.

Frodo, no doubt helped with guidance from Gandalf at Bag End, does not kill or let Gollum be killed. Because of this Middle-earth is saved.

Whether he MEANT to claim the Ring or not at the Cracks of Doom is immaterial. He did not fail.

He may have THOUGHT in his own mind that he DID fail, but that is different. Is not the pain of bite, sting and blade enough to go to the West to seek healing, and not because of any failure or sin on his part?

01-22-2004, 06:40 AM	#11
Essex Ghost Prince of Cardolan Join Date: Oct 2003 Location: Essex, England Posts: 886	In all these eloquent and interesting posts, I believe it all boils down to one simple thing. Whether Frodo claimed the ring of his own accord or via another power forcing him to do so, to me he did not fail at the end because of his compassion to let Gollum live. He, and Middle-earth were redeemed because of this one act. Sorry if I've gone off tangent, but this is surely what Tolkien meant when you look at the plot of the book. Frodo, no doubt helped with guidance from Gandalf at Bag End, does not kill or let Gollum be killed. Because of this Middle-earth is saved. Whether he MEANT to claim the Ring or not at the Cracks of Doom is immaterial. He did not fail. He may have THOUGHT in his own mind that he DID fail, but that is different. Is not the pain of bite, sting and blade enough to go to the West to seek healing, and not because of any failure or sin on his part?