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Visit The *EVEN NEWER* Barrow-Downs Photo Page |
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#1 |
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Guest
Posts: n/a
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The origonal question was HOW did the orcs and men breed, correct? Well, since we're all throwing our own little opinions in, I may as well, as I have many of them. :P
1) In my imagination, Saruman used his wizardry to trick the women into believing the orcs were men (either their husbands or just men whom they would know) and led them on to impregnate the women as well who in turn gave birth to orc/men. 2) Contradicting idea #1 goes the facts that Saruman wouldn't have time to do this, and it wouldn't sufficiently create an army of orc-men, so instead of physically breeding orc and man, he did indeed cast some spell upon orc and men to where their bodies intertwined and mixed together forming one being of and evil orc-man. |
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#2 | |
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Wight
Join Date: Oct 2002
Location: Ephel Duath
Posts: 115
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Twilight One,
I agree that the chronology of Saruman raising an army of Orc-Human hybrids is a little complicated in terms of how he did it so fast. Tolkien does say in Myths Transformed that nevertheless, Saruman did exactly that: Quote:
The larger point of this whole section of Myths Transformed is speculation of the origin of orcs (Tolkien kept changing his mind on this matter) and whether Orcs had fëa and free will (probably not, unless they were really corrupted Elves and/or Men, an idea which Tolkien seems to largely discard. So, assuming Orcs are not corrupted Children of Ilúvatar and do not possess fëa or free will, what of Orc-human hybrids? Just thought this thread could use some more covtroversy
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#3 |
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Guest
Posts: n/a
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Well I stand corrected! It seems in that quote there are two seperate breeds of creature, men-orcs and orc-men. So for instance if orcs don't have free will, and obviously men do, the men-orcs would have free will while the orc-men didn't, being orc-dominant so to speak.
More controversy indeed.
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