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Old 09-17-2004, 04:36 PM   #1
Boromir88
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1420! An explanation

Lyta

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Boromir88, if we were to follow this line of reasoning to its conclusion, Smeagol should not have been corrupted either, and yet he was--almost instantly.
An explanation to that would be, Gollum was corrupted from the start. The Ring attacked Gollum's weakness, and made Gollum kill to get it. Where Bilbo, Bilbo was a lot kinder of heart, which is why he doesn't kill Gollum over it. Although, we do see a bit of the "nasty" Bilbo side, but still, doesn't kill in order to keep, or gain the ring.
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