Magic in Middle-earth - The Barrow-Downs Discussion Forum

Saulotus · 09-21-2000, 09:34 PM

<font face="Verdana"><table><TR><TD><FONT SIZE="1" face="Verdana, Helvetica, sans-serif">Haunting Spirit
Posts: 59</TD><TD></TD></TR></TABLE>
<img src="http://www.barrowdowns.com/images/posticons/bluepal.jpg" align=absmiddle> Re: Magic in Middle-earth

Better question: What about the Druedain?

The statement is in LETTERS #155.
However there is a footnote attached to the text done by Tolkien where he questions his own statement's veracity. 'But the Numenoreans used "spells" in making swords?'
Also of note is that this 'Letter' is actually a portion of a draft for Letter 154 where this portion of the letter was excised from the sent version.

I think if it were absent from man's 'nature', then several of his own plot devices fail, and why it may have been excised.

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09-21-2000, 09:34 PM	#11
Saulotus Shade of Carn Dûm Join Date: Sep 2000 Posts: 346	<font face="Verdana"><table><TR><TD><FONT SIZE="1" face="Verdana, Helvetica, sans-serif">Haunting Spirit Posts: 59</TD><TD></TD></TR></TABLE> <img src="http://www.barrowdowns.com/images/posticons/bluepal.jpg" align=absmiddle> Re: Magic in Middle-earth Better question: What about the Druedain? The statement is in LETTERS #155. However there is a footnote attached to the text done by Tolkien where he questions his own statement's veracity. 'But the Numenoreans used "spells" in making swords?' Also of note is that this 'Letter' is actually a portion of a draft for Letter 154 where this portion of the letter was excised from the sent version. I think if it were absent from man's 'nature', then several of his own plot devices fail, and why it may have been excised. </p>