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#1 |
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King's Writer
Join Date: Jul 2002
Posts: 1,721
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Indeed that would from my next §, as it does in our version as you have it.
Why do you think it should come before the meeting with Asgon? Húrin meet Asgon at the crossing of Taeglin, so how could Húrin before that gather any of the wood-men that lived south of Taeglin? Or do you consider that the wood-men all left their former homes at the time of Túrins activity with the Outlaws and that Húrin did not gather them from south of Taeglin but from within Brethil? If that would be the case than "having no homes or lands of their own" would realy fit them very well. Really that is case to be considered: Did all the wood-men left their homes and did Húrin gather them from Brethil? Or did he gather the last remants that still lived south of Taeglin? Respectfully Findegil |
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#2 |
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Pile O'Bones
Join Date: Oct 2007
Posts: 12
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Yes, I think that the point is this one: Who are the Woodmen?
1) people of the folk of haleth living in the forest (without homes or lands...) 2) outlaws living in the forerst: a) north of taeglin b) south of taeglin I think best of the first choice; don't think there should be any more outlaws south of taeglin after the departure of the wolf-men. Don't know for sure what Tolkien intended with that note. |
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#3 | ||
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King's Writer
Join Date: Jul 2002
Posts: 1,721
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Thinking further on it and re-reading what is said in the Narn I agree that taken in combination it is most probable that Húrin did not gather any woodmen south of Taeglin. Rather he would find followers by woodmean tha had come to Brethil and lingered their 'having no homes or lands of their own'.
If we can agree on that, this is what our version shuold become: Quote:
Quote:
Findegil |
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