How was Gondor founded?

[Findegil]

The abondoned story Formendacil is revering to is named "Tal-Elmar" after the name of the mean charachter. In reconsidering the story later, Tolkien sought that he would have to adapt the geography to fit the coast of Gondor some where around later Pelagir.

Since the story breaks of just after the first contact is made, we do not see much of the real Númenorean behavior against the neativs, but we hear very bad storys about them from Tal-Elmars father and the capitain of the ship does says to Tal-Elmar that his people will have to leave since the area will be occupied by a Númenorean settelment.

On the other hand the poeple of Tal-Elmar are clearly under Saurons sway and they are enemys of the Northmann of Rhovanion and the Drûg of White Mountains and the Númenoreans seem to know that (or assumed it as they did wrongfuly with the Dunlandings).

However, the People of Gondor were by the mayorty not of Númenorean stock (look at the trups coming to Minas Tirith in the LotR). It seems that only at the old cities of Pelagir, Umbar and Dol Amroth were greater Númenorean settelments before the arival of Isildur and Anarion. The brother settelt with their people in Ithilien and Anórien, which were as it seems mostly unpopulated before.

Respectfuly
Findegil

[Elmo]

I think Tolkien is saying colonialism is good as long as the people doing the colonising are 'just' about it, which would fit in with the attitudes of the time. I mean nothing bad is ever said about Gondor's continued expansion into the lands of Rhun and Harad throughout the 3rd age.

Surely this land theft though would make the people whose land it was hate Gondor even more? It would create ample ground for Sauron to work with in making these people 'evil'.

[Inziladun]

Originally Posted by Elmo

I mean nothing bad is ever said about Gondor's continued expansion into the lands of Rhun and Harad throughout the 3rd age.

You mean, after the fall of Sauron? Before that, Gondor's territory had been shrinking, not increasing.

When Elessar made peace with the Easterlings and Southrons at the end of the Third Age, I think the implication is that without Sauron's influence, those peoples would be let alone under their own laws, as long as they didn't try to war against Gondor.

Originally Posted by Elmo

Surely this land theft though would make the people whose land it was hate Gondor even more? It would create ample ground for Sauron to work with in making these people 'evil'.

At the time of the founding of the Kingdoms In Exile, most of the Men of Middle-earth were under Sauron's sway already, and had been disposed toward evil since the days of Morgoth. The Edain were the "good" ones who went west to escape his influence.

[The Mouth of Sauron]

Pelagir was the chief haven of the Faithful before the fall of Numenor. It seems that during the Second Age the Numenorean settlements in what was to become Gondor were more peaceful, with less conflict with the original inhabitants, than was the case further north in Eriador.

For example, Minas Tirith, Osgiliath and Minas Ithil must have been at least in some form of development before the fall of Numenor - otherwise it seems doubtful whether the Faithful would have had time to build them after the Downfall and before Sauron returned to Middle-Earth.

[Puddleglum]

Don't forget they had over a hundred years before Sauron attacked. Doesn't mean those cities didn't exist in some form - but they still had a lot of time to establish their realm and build/expand/reinforce/etc various towns, cities and fortresses. 100+ years is a long time.