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Old 10-15-2011, 10:17 PM   #6
Boromir88
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Aiwendil View Post
Although a discussion of the relation between Barad-dur and the Ring is clearly not what Tolkien is focused on here, this statement does seem to present a different version of that relationship from what Elrond says. Namely, it suggests that Sauron transferred some of his own power into the foundations of Barad-dur and, quite separately, also transferred some of his own power into the Ring. If this is the case, then maybe the link between Barad-dur and the Ring comes about not because the Ring was used in the making of Barad-dur, but because it was invested with the same power that was invested in Barad-dur. Instead of Sauron -> Ring -> Barad-dur we have Sauron -> Barad-dur and Sauron -> Ring. We might then take Elrond's statement either as an error on his part or as merely an imprecise way of describing the situation.
Perhaps an imprecise description from Elrond. But he does say "made with the ring" not "made by."

Made by would definitely point to Sauron made the Ring then used it to build the foundations. Then as you ask in this thread, we've got a problem with inconsistency.

Made with, I think there is a different interpretation possible. It would suggest the somehow the Sauron-Barad Dur and Sauron-Ring connection leads to Barad-dur's foundations being enhanced. Either it's an effect from the Ring being made or Sauron directly strengthens the foundations, tying its strength to the Ring.

I'd say this is even more likely, since Sauron's own power was enhanced by creating the Ring:

Quote:
While he wore it, his power on earth was actually enhanced. But even if he did not wear it, that power existed and was in 'rapport' with himself: he was not 'diminished.~Letter #131
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