Does Saruman lose his ability to use magic when his staff is broken?

[Inziladun]

Originally Posted by Draugohtar

I just feel it's difficult to justify Galadriel being able to furnish Gandalf reborn with a staff if the staffs had such a potent nature.

Mightiest of the elves left in Middle Earth she may be, but would she really be able to replicate a gift of the Valar intended to modify the power of a Maia?

Galadriel may have provided the physical wood needed to fashion the staff, but why is she necessarily the source of its real power? If the staffs were primarily symbols of authority, and perhaps secondarily a means of focusing the innate "divine" abilities of the Istari, the same Authority that sent Gandalf back to Middle-earth would have been easily capable of making his staff exactly what he needed.

Originally Posted by Rhod the Red

We don't read anything about what happened to his Ring of Power. I imagine it's powers were eliminated with the breaking of the staff.

I've always thought that ring to have been Saruman's little attempt to fashion his own Ring of Power rather then one of the "lesser" rings made by the Noldor of Eregion.
If the source of its power (if indeed it had any) was from Saruman, then it seems logical that the ring would lose power in proportion to Saruman's loss.
If the ring was of another make, then Saruman's state should have had no effect on it.

On another note: 5000 posts! And it only took me about 11 years and nine months to get there.