Quote:
Originally Posted by jallanite
*Sigh!*
The discussion continues until http://forum.barrowdowns.com/showthr...201#post676201 which makes it plain that I don’t like the explanation I presented either.
But what of that?
Tolkien twice elsewhere in The Lord of the Rings and once in Letters and twice in Unfinished Tales claims that the nine Rings possessed by mortals had returned to Sauron by that time. See http://oakroadsystems.com/genl/ringfaq.htm and search on “C7.” for a complete discussion.
The mention in the chapter “The Council of Elrond” is either to be interpreted according to my suggestion or it is in error.
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Could be an error then.
PS: However I'm more inclined to believe that when token talks about Sauron gathering the nine to himself he could have been referring to the (ring wraiths). After all if he has control of the (ring wraiths) then he pretty much has control of the nine rings of power. It would pretty much for all reasoning be the one and the same.
PSS: Where were the nine and their rings of power during the Hobbit?