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#1 | |||
Gruesome Spectre
Join Date: Dec 2000
Location: Heaven's doorstep
Posts: 8,039
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Quote:
Isildur was a king with the attendant desire for strength to rule his realm and secure it; Gollum wanted to be able to sneak around and spy on others; Bilbo wanted the Ring's invisibility effect to aid him as the 'burglar', though he had also come to enjoy the power itself, feeling pride when it hid him from Smaug, and so forth. The Ring called to the chink in one's armor which was one's greatest want, and it offered the power to effect it. Gandalf said the Ring would weigh on his innate feelings of pity and the desire to do good to corrupt him. Quote:
Also, he may have had some inkling that it would be useful in some way unrelated to him, whether that was a conscious thought or not. Quote:
As for his 'betrayal' of the Dwarves after giving up the stone, he could hardly have stayed with them when Thorin had made it pretty clear he wasn't welcome anymore. Being picked up and threatened with being thrown to one's death wouldn't exactly make one want to stay with the person making the threat. ![]()
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Music alone proves the existence of God. |
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#2 |
Loremaster of Annúminas
Join Date: Oct 2006
Posts: 2,330
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Bilbo sees and is drwn to the Arkenstone just a paragraph after Tolkien describes not only his 'bedazlement' at the hoard, but allure of Dragon-gold; I think he pocketed it primarily because even our stolid Hobbit got a touch of the dragon-sickness, nothing more.
Certainly Tolkien in 1930 or so wasn't thinking of the malign influence of the One Ring!
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The entire plot of The Lord of the Rings could be said to turn on what Sauron didn’t know, and when he didn’t know it. |
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#3 |
Loremaster of Annúminas
Join Date: Oct 2006
Posts: 2,330
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Bilbo sees and is drwn to the Arkenstone just a paragraph after Tolkien describes not only his 'bedazzlement' at the hoard, but allure of Dragon-gold; I think he pocketed it primarily because even our stolid Hobbit got a touch of the dragon-sickness, nothing more.
Certainly Tolkien in 1930 or so wasn't thinking of the malign influence of the One Ring!
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The entire plot of The Lord of the Rings could be said to turn on what Sauron didn’t know, and when he didn’t know it. |
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#4 |
Ghost Prince of Cardolan
Join Date: Oct 2008
Location: Lonely Isle
Posts: 706
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I've been interested in the recent comments about whether the Ring induced Bilbo to take the Arkenstone and give it to Bard and the Elvenking. I think it quite unlikely; because Gandalf did not mention it in his later conversation with Frodo about the Ring and Bilbo.
When that happened, Gandalf discussed the Ring's influence on Bilbo in terms of the latter not telling the truth about how he got it, i.e. his initial explanation was that Gollum gave it to him due to the former having lost the riddle-game, and him later behaving like Gollum, saying that the ring was his 'precious'. Nowhere did Gandalf refer to Bilbo taking the Arkenstone as an example of the Ring's influence. As I have mentioned before, Bilbo had an arguable case that the stone was the fourteenth share of the hoard he had been promised by Thorin and Company, and that he was entitled to pick and chose his own fourteenth, which he had done, giving the stone to others. ![]() |
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#5 |
Shade of Carn Dûm
Join Date: Feb 2014
Posts: 430
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Hi Boromirs, Farmir, and Inziladun.
@reader I've been clear to delineate between the explicit prose and the implicit indications in the aspects of text that are discordant. Three factors have been lifted to highlight the problem (the difficulties are not so much with the explicit prose). The factors, instead, of weight to note are: 1. the delay between Bilbo finding the Arkenstone and declaring this to his 'brothers', with several weeks being involved, and prior to the arrival of the Elven King. 2. the delay between Bilbo finding the ring and his uses of it, before his comrades discovered his stealth, secrecy and lurking. 3. the moral decay implied by Bilbo's attenuation to the use of the Ring, and I've cited actual quotes from the book. Several weeks of invisible stealth in the Elven King's halls, and Bilbo's attenuation to this. I liken this to imagining you had the Ring and were skulking around your friends' homes and got caught. I argue that we are seduced by the author into an amoral alliance with Bilbo over the course of the book. I remember at my first reading of the book feeling like needing to wash then erasing this, then resuming the irky feeling at reading LotR (Shadow of the Past). There are other indications of implicit variance (not explicit) from the narrative. Bilbo's reaction (or lack of it) and being governed by boredom in the final hours before leaving the mountain is one. Having re-read how he was received by Bard and the Elven King, recently - there was also something really wrong it. The author, again, seduces us into 'buying' the way the story was presented.
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A call to my lost pals. Dine, Orcy_The_Green_Wonder, Droga, Lady Rolindin. Gellion, Thasis, Tenzhi. I was Silmarien Aldalome. Candlekeep. WotC. Can anyone help? |
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#6 |
Loremaster of Annúminas
Join Date: Oct 2006
Posts: 2,330
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Ivriniel, your argument might have more force had Tolkien in any way revised that section of The Hobbit during or after the writing of The Lord of the Rings, as he did with Chapter 5, but he didn't. We're supposed to assume, what, that Tolkien unconsciously was writing a description of the Ring's influence on Bilbo years before he "discovered" that the Ring had any influence at all?
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The entire plot of The Lord of the Rings could be said to turn on what Sauron didn’t know, and when he didn’t know it. |
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#7 |
Shade of Carn Dûm
Join Date: Feb 2014
Posts: 430
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I'd rather steer away from 'forcing' the reader and instead enjoy some unorthodox positioning of arguments.
So - the points about dates of authorship are well and truly attended to in materials upstream (I'll re-post the summary URL and highlight the post where I address the idem about dates of authorship. Yes, the dreaded chapter 5 was the revised text, which is the point about back-editing the Hobbit after LotR was begun (but recall, Tolkien also had a first draft of LotR going in the Fellowship for Unwin and Allen to read, that retained the original Hobbit unedited). However, in accordance with what Tolkien actually did to himself with his own works, my arguments do much the same. Why is it allowable for the author to vary interpretation of his very own text (as he certainly did in the prelude of the 19 sixty something edition), and yet others may not. Of course, Tolkien has interpreted the very same text in two streams of meaning, pre and post Hobbit revisions. So - I am not arguing that which has been posited. I have a distinct position. Kind Regards Edit: with regards to my use of the term '...interpreted...' I refer to text outside of chapter IV.
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A call to my lost pals. Dine, Orcy_The_Green_Wonder, Droga, Lady Rolindin. Gellion, Thasis, Tenzhi. I was Silmarien Aldalome. Candlekeep. WotC. Can anyone help? Last edited by Ivriniel; 01-14-2016 at 10:15 PM. |
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