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#28 | ||||
Wight
Join Date: Jun 2016
Posts: 144
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And... As for the ring disappearing??? Really? Would no one in Middle-earth be capable of simple slight-of-hand? And that isn't the only explanation for the person who literally commands the Ontological Identification (What things Are) of Middle-earth. I still think Shippey's explanation fits the best. It even applies when dealing with why he is confined to such a small area (Goldberry is the primarily answer). Shippey skirts around the issue of Archetypes here as well, as what he is describing of Tom Bombadil is an Archetype (First Man, The Namer, . . . ). As for Tolkien using Allegory. Tolkien addressed that in several places, indicating that there is a difference between Allegory and Significance. Quote:
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Tom Shippey was not well educated in Campbell's work (not wholly ignorant of it, I understand, but not deeply studied). I am. And when I read Shippey's account (Echoed elsewhere by other Tolkien Scholars), I immediately recalled from Campbell's The Masks of God, vol. 1: Primitive Mythology the various accounts of the First Man and other such spirits whose job it is is to simply know "What is." (The Ontology of the World). So it is not that people are "allergic" to Allegory WRT Tolkien's works. It is that Tolkien himself utterly rejected it as a conscious application. And what this girl is describing in her attempts to force an allegorical explanation onto Tom Bombadil (one that Tolkien has already held-forth upon) is to claim that Tolkien consciously and intentionally wrote an Allegory, where Tolkien has utterly rejected that. This makes Tolkien a liar, at worst, and deluded, at best. Why would there be an INTENTIONAL allegory in Tolkien's works where he has explicitly rejected it? MB Last edited by Marwhini; 07-10-2016 at 12:34 AM. |
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