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#11 | ||||||
Late Istar
Join Date: Mar 2001
Posts: 2,224
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Second, because it pleases me to be moral. But I do not claim this as a general truth for all people. Quote:
But perhaps a further clarification ought to be made. Do you claim that the morality or immorality of an action (or intention) arises in direct relation to this fulfillment? Or do you claim that morality simply is what it is, and that it just so happens that happiness is correlated with morality? As I understand it, Plato and Aristotle claim the former. That is, they think that happiness and morality are, on the most basic level, tied to one another. In their view, it doesn't make sense to talk about morality without also talking about happiness. In the latter view (which is how I think you are reading Kant), morality can be defined without reference to the happiness or fulfillment of the moral agent. But once it is so defined, a correlation can be drawn between happiness and morality. I'm not sure whether this is Kant's view or not - I had assumed it was not, but your reading is interesting. I think that the latter view is probably approximately true. That is, I think there may be exceptions. The trouble with the former view is that it does not allow exceptions, for in that view it is meaningless to speak of a "happy immoral person". Suppose there were a person who, through some neurological abnormality, found it really deeply satisfying to murder innocent people and was deeply troubled by the thought of committing an act of kindness. Would you say that this person is moral? This is what I think the Platonic/Aristotelian view forces one to say. Would you say that the person is immoral and an exception to the general rule about morality corresponding to happiness? This is what I would say. Or would you say that you don't need to answer because this scenario is impossible? But why should it be impossible? Surely given sufficiently advanced neuroscience such a being could be constructed. |
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