Dumbing down the Books

[Aiwendil]

Eurytus wrote:

No, that is not quite correct. My position is that much of Tolkien's archaic language is overdone but the true fault is that his use of it creates a disconnect between the 1st and 3rd books.

Ah. I apologize. I thought that (earlier) you were arguing that since The Lord of the Rings was written at the time it was, it should not have used archaic language.

But it is quite different (and altogether more reasonable, I think) to claim that the writing is simply poor or that there is an internal clash of styles. I still disagree with these claims, but I can accept them as well formulated criticisms.

Liriodendron wrote:

Amazing! So many long posts, all saying pretty much the same thing. Clickety, clickety, click.

I'm afraid my posts are particularly vulnerable to this charge. Maybe I should be confined to the New Silmarillion project . . .