Morgoth and Doriath

[Rikae]

Originally Posted by Raynor

Because it was a factor that occurred too in this particular instance.

Fair enough. Do you have an example of a case where there was no fate or doom involved?

[Raynor]

Absence of evidence is not evidence of absence ; judging otherwise would be an argument from ignorance. My answer is no.

[Rikae]

Originally Posted by Raynor

Absence of evidence is not evidence of absence ; judging otherwise would be an argument from ignorance. My answer is no.

I believe the burden of proof is on you, as you are the one claiming that something which never appears in the books and which the explicit mention of "fate" in the instances that DO appear implies could not happen, could.
Of course, it is possible. It's also possible that a troop of hobbits with spears could defeat the fleet of Numenor - but I wouldn't bet on it.

[Raynor]

As I stated, my position is that the quote cuts both ways. If you are arguing that only a single interpretation is valid, you need to provide that elusive qualifier.

[Rikae]

Originally Posted by Raynor

As I stated, my position is that the quote cuts both ways. If you are arguing that only a single interpretation is valid, you need to provide that elusive qualifier.

Certainly not. I would never argue such a thing. I'm merely saying that one interpretation is more probable; but such matters are always, ultimately, ambiguous.
(I would say that's what makes them worth discussing, actually...)

[Raynor]

Originally Posted by Rikae

I'm merely saying that one interpretation is more probable

You may be right .

[Rikae]

Originally Posted by Raynor

You may be right .

Of course. The question is, which interpretation is more probable?