The Names of Sauron

[Inziladun]

Originally Posted by Legate of Amon Lanc

Well, that would be a good explanation for me too, had it not been for this note that Sauron does not allow anybody to use his name (the name "Sauron" itself, as logically follows Gimli's words and the meaning of the quoted paraghraph) - so it seems that he actually wasn't so happy about it.

Well, is it possible Aragorn was simply wrong about Sauron not allowing that name to be spoken? As has been noted, in addition to the Mouth, the emissary sent to Erebor used Sauron too. Could Aragorn's statement have been based upon outdated information, maybe from the Second Age, which was the last time the Elves and Dúnedain had been involved in close contact with Sauron's forces? Perhaps by the Third Age, Sauron was at the point he didn't care anymore what the West called him, as long as his servants still feared and obeyed him.

EDIT- had this thought also.

Sauron was known only by that name to the West.

2951- Sauron declares himself openly and gathers power in Mordor.

The Tale of Years

How would he have 'declared himself'? 'It is I, the one who you thought you beat in the Second Age. You took my Ring, but I'm back anyway. I will break you!' (couldn't resist the Rocky IV reference )
No. He would have named himself, by the moniker the west knew. 'I am Sauron. I will destroy you'.

I do think it likely he didn't want his own servants to use that name under normal circumstances. He was not only their ruler, but aspired to be their god as well. The generic names used by the Orcs, Him, the Top, etc., would have been adequate for them, and would have helped keep Sauron as a totem in their eyes, a figure they would only need to see as their Master.
But when dealing directly with those in the West, Sauron would suffice. Again, why not? The abhorred wasn't really all that demeaning, and it still seems likely Sauron would be amused by it, and probably proud of it.