Why did Legolas set sail for the Grey Havens only after Aragorn's death?

[Inziladun]

Originally Posted by LadyBrooke

But even using the LotR's definition of Eldar, and not the Silm version, which would need to be clarified as to which version is used as some of use one and others the other, Legolas also proclaims himself a Silvan elf, not an Eldar. When entering Hollin, he says "the Elves of this land were of a race strange to us of the silvan folk."

I don't think that would necessarily be a point against Legolas being Sindarin.
Since silvan is not capitalised there, I could see that as Legolas speaking not as a Silvan Elf, but rather a silvan (wood-dwelling) elf to whom the culture of the Noldor was alien.