The effect of the Great Rings upon Men

[Ivriniel]

Originally Posted by Nerwen

Okay. It seems I haven't actually got my point across to you. It's not about the wordplay on "Man/man", it's about cause and effect.

Here's an example that leaves out the semantical issue:

Let us suppose there's a fellow named Joe who is both aquaphobic and superstitious. Joe consults Madame Zelda, the fortune teller, who shuffles her Tarot deck, reads the leftover tea-leaves in Joe's cup and examines the lines on his palm.

Joe, she says, is not fated to drown.

Ecstatic, Joe trips on his way out, falls down the stairs, breaks his neck and dies.

Thus, the prophecy is fulfilled.

1. Was Joe a special kind of being with immunity to drowning?
2. Was he uniquely vulnerable to stairs?

Do you see what I'm getting at now?



*(3. (Optional) Will Hollywood film this tragic story as "The Fault in Our Stairs?")

not logic *screams* And causation, reversal.

If A does not imply B, this does not mean that the presence of B implies an absence of A....

hahahaha omg! I'm back at Uni.

Yes of course! Jo had special powers to avoid drowning which was why he fell down the stairs. hahaha

*composes self* (seriously, I just ceased laughing)

Yes, of course, the prophesy's range/domain and its inclusive and exclusive areas are quite precisely the issue.

*rubs temples* *waves finger at Glorifinel*

"now, Mr Elfy - you should have been clearer about context in your words. Were you locking, explicitly, the terms 'by the hand of man' to what - exactly! Or to 'what not!'"