A question about class in Middle Earth

[Bêthberry]

Originally Posted by Morthoron

Interestingly enough, Smeagol's Stoor line that remigrated from the area of the Angle and settled back in the Vales of Anduin was matriarchal (or at least, that's the assumption based on the gleanings we get from Tolkien), one of the few instances (Haleth and perhaps Galadriel -- being equipollent with Celeborn -- being others) where strong female leaders were present. I suppose you could add the ruling queens of Numenor before Ar-Pharazon usurped the crown and forced marriage upon the last presumptive queen, Miriel. Sadly, thereafter primogeniture seems to have been the rule in Gondor among the kings and ruling stewards (as you perceptively stated, the daughters of Elessar didn't even warrant a mention).

Well now, I am glad you did not assume I was referring to Coleridge's definition of patrician.

Even more interesting is the fact that, if I recall correctly, the only pure incidence of shunning in LotR is that of Smeagol by his matriarchal clan, although the parochialism of the hobbits suggest all hobbits harbour that potential. Didn't the ruling queens of Numenor rule only because they lacked male siblings?

But as I mentioned, Elessar's decree about limiting access to the Shire suggests at least a paternalism, as if the hobbits were regarded as children, as they didn't labour for Gondor.

Of course, we don't know who worked the tobacco fields.

EDIT:

Originally Posted by Nerwen

Mind if just drag this thread back to the original topic for a moment? Mansun, you didn't simply ask whether social classes existed in M-E, you said:

I must apologise to Mansun, as I assumed his use of between represented the common confusion of between and among, but Nerwen's post suggests that between is indeed the operant word.

Originally Posted by [QUOTE=Nerwen

Now, that question is answered pretty comprehensively in the next post. However, I'm just curious about what made you think of it to begin with.

Because, you see, societies with species-based class-systems do crop up in speculative fiction, I can't recall any sign of that in Middle-earth (apart from the example Morthoron gives). Or have you seen something I've missed/

Did Dwarves ever hold fealty to the Elves? I had always assumed they were thoroughly independent. Certainly the Appendix "Durin's Folk" speaks only of the awakening of Durin's people and their coming to Azanulbizar, and the pure line of the dwarven monarchy.