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#1 | |
Wight of the Old Forest
Join Date: Dec 2008
Location: Unattended on the railway station, in the litter at the dancehall
Posts: 3,329
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Quote:
"We, the Lord of the Rings, Lord of Barad-dūr, Nśrnen and Gorgoroth, Liege-lord of Dol Guldur, Supreme God-King of Khand, Rhūn, Near and Far Harad and by right of all Middle-earth, known to Our subordinates as The (Great) Eye, He, The Top, etc., hereby expressly forbid all Our loyal subjects, under severest penalty, to use in speech or writing Our True Name, which we will not reveal here as it's none of their business. Given at Our chancellery in Barad-dūr, through Our trusted secretary, the Mouth of ******, T.A. 2951." Orcs, Nazgūl, Trolls, Variags, Easterlings, Haradrim etc.: "???" (Sorry, couldn't resist... ![]()
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Und aus dem Erebos kamen viele seelen herauf der abgeschiedenen toten.- Homer, Odyssey, Canto XI |
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#2 | |
Ghost Prince of Cardolan
Join Date: Jan 2008
Location: Back on the Helcaraxe
Posts: 733
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Quote:
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Call me Ibrin (or Ibri) :) Originality is the one thing that unoriginal minds cannot feel the use of. John Stewart Mill |
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#3 |
Haunting Spirit
Join Date: Feb 2009
Location: The Halls of Mandos
Posts: 86
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One possibility, I note, has not been mentioned. What if Pippin misinterpreted what the Mouth [of Sauron] actually said grammatically. We know that Sindarin has a genitive by apposition. What if Westron does as well? In that case, piŋ Soron (just a suggestion, by no means a serious reconstruction) could be translated "Mouth [of] Sauron". However, adjectival formations are also often formed via apposition; piŋ soron could also mean The Abhorred Mouth. This could have been an "honorary title" -- perhaps but not necessarily a linguistic pun, since Sauron didn't use that name anyway -- which Pippin might easily have misunderstood. (Or Tolkien, if we dare suggest that!)
Also, it is possible that the use of Sauron is an anachronism or alteration; a later translator (or Frodo himself) replaced the real name that the Mouth [of Sauron] used with a name that would be more readily understood. In this case, the Mouth [of Sauron] called himself no such thing, and the problem is solved. This latter explanation seems to me to be the most Tolkienesque. |
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#4 |
A Voice That Gainsayeth
Join Date: Nov 2006
Location: In that far land beyond the Sea
Posts: 7,431
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There have been similar ideas as to misinterpretation, however the first one (with taking into account the linguistic aspect) is truly original! It depends on the circumstances, of course, but anything is possible. Nevertheless, I must say that of course it was not only Pippin, Frodo or whoever who would be misinterpretating the Mouth's name here. Given the way in which the Red Book has been compiled, many of the facts have been probably carefully checked by the scholarly minds of Bilbo and Frodo and a mistake like that would have likely been uncovered. If somebody misinterpretated the name of some totally random hill in the wilderness, nobody will mind, but the Mouth of Sauron seems to be a known and feared figure, at least among the "high-ranking" people, all of Sauron's direct enemies probably knew of his existence (probably just as well as they knew about the existence of the Nazgul). In that sense, his name had about as large chance to be misinterpretated as, let's say, the name of Cirith Gorgor or that of Gothmog the lieutenant of Morgul.
If it were to be said that the name "Mouth of Sauron" is a result of misinterpretation, then the variant I could accept - in this paradigm - would be that it was Tolkien who misinterpretated it, resp. as it were, that the Westron got misinterpretated while being translated into English. ![]()
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"Should the story say 'he ate bread,' the dramatic producer can only show 'a piece of bread' according to his taste or fancy, but the hearer of the story will think of bread in general and picture it in some form of his own." -On Fairy-Stories |
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#5 |
Ghost Prince of Cardolan
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Perhaps the Mouth of Sauron used his master's name at the Black Gate to play with his enemies, to sort of daunt them. I mean, if all went his way - and, at that point, I don't think he had too many reasons to believe it would not - he would have taken Saruman's place at Isengard and he had to secure his position to his enemies, to make sure they would really never bother him again. He wanted to prove to Gandalf and the rest that he was not just a slave of Sauron's - although Gandalf does call him one at the end of their discussion, thus showing that the trick did not actually work. It was like he was saying to them: I am that deep in Sauron's favour, that close to him that I can actually afford to use this name, a thing he does not permit the rest of his servants to do. Therefore, I am to be feared almost just as much as Sauron, and you'd better fear me, for your own good. I mean, what better way to make sure no one would dare to openly challange his position in Orthanc than by proving that he was the second most powerful being in Middle-earth apart from Sauron and that Sauron sort of acknowledged that by allowing his ambassador liberties he would not normally have allowed to his other - less trustworthy and less important, it is implied - servants?
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Is this the end? No more the hunt, the journey and the goal? That terrifies me most: no more the goal! -Ray Bradbury, Leviathan '99 |
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#6 | |
A Voice That Gainsayeth
Join Date: Nov 2006
Location: In that far land beyond the Sea
Posts: 7,431
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Quote:
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"Should the story say 'he ate bread,' the dramatic producer can only show 'a piece of bread' according to his taste or fancy, but the hearer of the story will think of bread in general and picture it in some form of his own." -On Fairy-Stories |
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#7 | |
Ghost Prince of Cardolan
Join Date: Jan 2008
Location: Back on the Helcaraxe
Posts: 733
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Quote:
An interesting notion, nonetheless.
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Call me Ibrin (or Ibri) :) Originality is the one thing that unoriginal minds cannot feel the use of. John Stewart Mill |
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