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#1 | ||
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Gruesome Spectre
Join Date: Dec 2000
Location: Heaven's doorstep
Posts: 8,039
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That certainly gives the impression that Saruman had never seen Théoden in person.
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#2 | |
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Ghost Prince of Cardolan
Join Date: Aug 2012
Posts: 785
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I think the most likely situation is that which Legate mentioned - there were probably occasionally messages between Isengard and Edoras on this matter or that. I imagine them typically being initiated by Saruman when there was some situation in which it would be advantageous for him if Rohan was to do one thing or another. He would of course always phrase these messages as if it was in Rohan's best interest as well. If Saruman had "long ago" offered Théoden a state beyond his "merit" and "wit" is it possible that perhaps at some point early in Théoden's reign, when Saruman was making more tentative steps towards becoming a Power, he sent such a message to Théoden? Saruman began to fortify Isengard in 2953 but didn't start communicating with Sauron until 3000, while Théoden became King of the Mark in 2980. It seems to fit rather neatly, although Appendix A states that Saruman's "designs towards Rohan, though he hid them, were evil" even that early. Perhaps to an extent he hid them from himself as well. Note that Thengel had been an ally of "Thorongil" and therefore would probably, like Ecthelion II, have been encouraged to trust in Gandalf rather than Saruman. Thorongil-Aragorn stopped adventuring in 2980 and presumably returned to the North, so he would not have been available to give the same counsel to Théoden, but it's possible that Thengel passed the advice on to his son at some point before his death. It's possible that Saruman sent a message to Théoden proposing a more serious military alliance which Théoden refused, which caused Saruman to eventually resort to using Wormtongue to corrupt the will of the King. The Tolkien Gateway gives 3014 as the date when Théoden's health began to fail but I can't find that in the Appendices, can anyone confirm or deny that?
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"Since the evening of that day we have journeyed from the shadow of Tol Brandir." "On foot?" cried Éomer. |
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#3 | |
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A Voice That Gainsayeth
Join Date: Nov 2006
Location: In that far land beyond the Sea
Posts: 7,431
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Not that I'd personally hold the opinion, but I like that idea. As to the other possibility, that Saruman did actually never speak to Théoden in person, in that case I would think the offer would likely be something along the lines of the diplomatic note, like I mentioned, and possibly aiming towards the wording "let's team up, I will make you more powerful than Gondor, you can rule as far as Anduin Vales where your ancestors used to live (and you can then help me assure nobody but me searches the Anduin Vales in case certain Ring is still somewhere there, as a bonus)", possibly even: "hint hint, under me you could become the ruler of a great empire including former Gondor, for who needs Gondor?" Or something similar. Either that, or "evil" can be used broadly here, because if you want to establish alliance with Rohan, but effectively make it your puppet state and use it only as a weapon for your wars, then it certainly isn't "good" design.
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"Should the story say 'he ate bread,' the dramatic producer can only show 'a piece of bread' according to his taste or fancy, but the hearer of the story will think of bread in general and picture it in some form of his own." -On Fairy-Stories |
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#4 |
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Pilgrim Soul
Join Date: May 2004
Location: watching the wonga-wonga birds circle...
Posts: 9,461
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Not isn't the same as never though. It is still ambiguous. But I don't have enough access to texts to look further.
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“But Finrod walks with Finarfin his father beneath the trees in Eldamar.”
Christopher Tolkien, Requiescat in pace |
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#5 | |
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Laconic Loreman
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I'll have to go and look at the related chapters, although I can't recall any mention of Saruman making a direct offer to Théoden. I agree with the others though who said, Théoden's desire to "speak" to the enemy isn't a direct indication that he never did so either.
It could be Théoden didn't think of Saruman as "the enemy" before when Saruman made his offer. Saruman is talking about some vague time "long ago" and Théoden would have only seen Saruman as an enemy after Gandalf came and revealed Saruman's evil. I guess what I'm getting at is, Saruman talks about a time "long ago" but Saruman was only revealed as "the enemy" only a short time ago, when Gandalf & co. came to Edoras (even though I'm sure Théoden figured out Saruman had been playing him false for a long time). We know some details about the fall and demise of Saruman, but not much when he switched from being friendly and fair, to actively trying to take control of Rohan and over the region. If I remember correctly, there is a mention that during Thengel's reign Saruman started giving trouble to Rohan: Quote:
I do think it more likely that Grima would have been the one (under orders from Saruman) to deliver Saruman's offer to Théoden, than Saruman making the offer to Théoden in person. It can be assumed Grima would travel between Isengard and Edoras (in UT: Hunt for the Ring there is a mention of the Witch-King intercepting Grima on one occasion when he was going between the two places. Although, I can't speak about the canonicity of this part). From Saruman's perspective, it would have been an offer proposed by him (he wasn't one to credit Grima for anything, except for killing and eating Lotho). And in Théoden's perspective, he blamed Saruman more for the wrongs done to him than Grima. Théoden looked at Grima more mercifully and trying to absolve Grima of most of the blame. Théoden placed the blame solely on "the enemy," Saruman.
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Fenris Penguin
Last edited by Boromir88; 05-11-2015 at 06:07 PM. |
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#6 | ||
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A Voice That Gainsayeth
Join Date: Nov 2006
Location: In that far land beyond the Sea
Posts: 7,431
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The way I imagine it, he could of course be told by Saruman something along the lines of "hint to the King that we might come to a mutually benefitial agreement" (but we know he'd been doing that until Saruman's treachery could no longer be concealed, and I don't think that that's what Saruman was talking about, because he seems to have something specific and big in mind). But also, another question is for how long had Gríma been Théoden's counsellor. Saruman's offer could have also come before that (e.g. see my conspiracy theory above, previous post, end of the first paragraph). In any case, I would imagine the proposal to be actually a fairly open one - the way Saruman phrases it - or at least fairly openly proclaiming that it comes from Saruman himself. It might have been delivered by any means - a letter, any messenger other than Gríma - so it wouldn't really contradict anything regarding Théoden speaking or not speaking to Saruman before the fall of Isengard.
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"Should the story say 'he ate bread,' the dramatic producer can only show 'a piece of bread' according to his taste or fancy, but the hearer of the story will think of bread in general and picture it in some form of his own." -On Fairy-Stories |
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#7 |
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Ghost Prince of Cardolan
Join Date: Oct 2008
Location: Lonely Isle
Posts: 706
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In Unfinished Tales, in the essay 'The Battles of the Fords of Isen', it is stated that Théoden's health 'began to fail...early in the year 3014', when he was 66. The narrator said that 'his malady may thus have been due to natural causes, though the Rohirrim commonly lived till near or beyond their eightieth year. But it may well have been induced or increased by subtle poisons, administered by Gríma'.
The narrator then goes on to say that Théoden's 'sense of weakness and dependence' on Gríma was 'largely due to the cunning and skill of this evil counsellor's suggestions'. It could perhaps be argued that Théoden's weakening from 3014 onwards was part of Saruman's long-term strategy to destroy Rohan. There is no indication, even among Eomer and Théodred, that Saruman was anything other than a neighbouring ally, if one who had declared his independence from Gondor. Only when Gandalf escaped from Orthanc in September 3018 and began to alert people was it known that Saruman was an enemy. We need to remember that in 2759 Saruman entered into Isengard with the premission of Ruling Steward Beren, who felt he would be suitable, being the head of the White Council opposed to Sauron. He was subject, if nominally, to Gondorian overlordship. In LotR, in the chapter 'The Council of Elrond', Gandalf spoke about his discovery of the scroll written by Isildur, in the archives of Minas Tirith. He gave some background, saying that in 'former days' members of his order 'had been well received' in Gondor, 'but Saruman most of all....Often he had been for long the guest of the Lords of the City'. Denethor II showed Gandalf 'Less welcome than of old', and 'grudgingly' permitted him to search among the archives. Saruman therefore visited Minas Tirith in the past, and was a guest of the Stewards. Perhaps, in his journey to the City, he also called on the King of Rohan, as it would have been deeply impolite for him to have crossed Rohan without doing so. Perhaps he paid personal calls on any new Steward and King, in order to keep up his personal relationships with both states, and to reassure them of what he said he was doing. The issue is whether he continued this when Denethor II succeeded as steward, and Théoden as king, which happened in 2984 and 2980 respectively. A few decades previously, in 2953, he took advantage of Sauron's return to Mordor to declare his independence. Such an act would have led to a cooling of relations between him and Gondor and Rohan, even though they could do nothing to stop it. I don't consider it likely that he met Denethor and Théoden after 2953, although he may have sent messages to both to try and patch things up, perhaps after both had succeeded their respective fathers. Perhaps such a message to Théoden was the one referred to when he said to the latter: 'Long ago I offered you a state beyond your merit and your wit'. |
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